A biased coin is tossed $n$ times and heads shows up with probability $p$ on each toss. Let us call a sequence of throws which result in the same outcomes a run, so that for example, the sequence HHTHTTH contains five runs.
If $R$ is a r.v. representing the number of runs then $\mathbb{E}(R) = 1+(n-1)2pq$.
I want to work out the variance $var(R)$.
To do this I would like to use that $var(R) = var(R-1) = \mathbb{E}(R-1)^2 - (\mathbb{E}(R-1))^2$.
Let $I_j$ be the indicator function of the event that the outcome of the $(j+1)$th toss is different from the outcome of the $j$th toss. $I_j$ and $I_k$ are independent if $|j-k| > 1$, so that
\begin{equation*} \begin{aligned} \mathbb{E}(R-1)^2 ={} & \mathbb{E}\left\{\left(\sum_{j=1}^{n-1}I_j\right)^2\right\} \\ = {} &\mathbb{E} \left(\sum_{j=1}^{n-1} I_{j}^{2}+2 \sum_{j=1}^{n-2} I_{j} I_{j+1}+2 \sum_{j=1}^{n-3} \sum_{k=j+2}^{n-1} I_{j} I_{k}\right). \end{aligned} \end{equation*}
Now $\mathbb{E}(\sum_{j=1}^{n-1} I_{j}^{2}) = (n-1)2pq$ and $\mathbb{E}(2 \sum_{j=1}^{n-2} I_{j} I_{j+1}) = (n-2)2pq$.
We also have that $\mathbb{E}(2 \sum_{j=1}^{n-3} \sum_{k=j+2}^{n-1} I_{j} I_{k}) = (n-3)(n-4)(2pq)^2$ I believe.
But now I have lost confidence and I am not sure how to get the final result for the variance.
Is my approach correct and what should it be in the end?