Let $\phi \colon A \to B$ be a ring homomorphism, $X = \text{Spec}(A)$, $Y = \text{Spec}(B)$, and $\phi^* \colon Y \to X$ the induced mapping of $\phi$.
The exercise says that if $\phi$ is surjective, then $\phi^*$ is a homeomorphism of $Y$ onto the closed subset $V(\ker \phi)$ of $X$, or in more formal terms, the map
\begin{align*} \newcommand{\q}{\mathfrak{q}}
Y & \stackrel \Phi \longrightarrow V(\ker \phi) \\ \q & \longmapsto \phi^*(\q)
\end{align*}
is a homeomorphism.
First of all, why is $\Phi$ well-defined? That is, given $\q \in Y$, why is $\phi^*(\q)$ an element of $V(\ker \phi)$? Well, that’s easy: applying the inverse image to the inclusion $0 \subseteq \q$ we get that $\ker \phi = \phi^{-1}[0] \subseteq \phi^{-1}[\q] = \phi^*(\q)$.
Second, $\Phi$ is continuous because $\phi^*$ is (due to the universal property of the subspace topology, basically).
Next, you state that the map
\begin{align*} \newcommand{\p}{\mathfrak{p}} V(\ker \phi) & \stackrel \Psi \longrightarrow Y \\ \p & \longmapsto \phi[\p]
\end{align*}
is the inverse of $\Phi$. This is true, but it requires a little more work than you did.
Again, we need to prove that $\Psi$ is well-defined: given $\p \in V(\ker \phi)$, we need to prove that $\phi[\p]$ is an element of $Y$, that is, a prime ideal of $B$.
- Since $\phi$ is surjective, the image $\phi[\p]$ is an ideal of $B$.
- Take $x,y \in B$ with $xy \in \phi[\p]$. Then $xy = \phi(p)$ for some $p \in \p$.
Moreover, there are $x’,y’ \in A$ with $\phi(x’) = x$ and $\phi(y’) = y$.
Hence $\phi(x’y’) = \phi(p)$, and that means $x’y’-p \in \ker \phi$.
Finally, as $\ker \phi \subseteq \p$, it follows that $x’y’-p \in \p$, and consecuently $x’y’ \in \p$, from which we can conclude that $x’$ or $y’$ is in $\p$, so that $x$ or $y$ is in $\phi[\p]$.
Now, why is $\Psi$ continuous? If $g \in B$, I will leave to the reader to prove that
$$
\Psi^{-1}[Y_g] = X_f \cap V(\ker \phi),
$$
where $f$ is any element of $A$ with $\phi(f)=g$ ($\phi$ is surjective!).
Hence, the inverse image of any open basic subset of $Y$ is an open subset of $V(\ker \phi)$; so, $\Psi$ is continuous.
Finally, let see that $\Phi$ and $\Psi$ are, indeed, inverses to each other:
- As $\phi$ is surjective, $\phi[\phi^{-1}[\q]] = \q$ for any $\q \in Y$; so $\Psi \circ \Phi = \text{id}$.
- Using only the additivity of $\phi$, it can be shown that
$$
\phi^{-1}[\phi[S]] = S + \ker \phi
$$
for any subgroup $S$ of $A$.
Therefore, $\phi^{-1}[\phi[\p]] = \p$ for every $\p \in V(\ker \phi)$; i.e. $\Phi \circ \Psi = \text{id}$.