Have a look at this M.S.Q question:
Q. The general solution of the P.D.E $$(y+zx)z_x-(x+zy)z_y=x^2-y^2,$$
$F(x^2+y^2+z^2,xy+z)=0,~F \in C^1(\Bbb R^2)$,
$F(x^2+y^2-z^2,xy+z)=0,~F \in C^1(\Bbb R^2)$,
$F(x^2-y^2-z^2,xy+z)=0,~F \in C^1(\Bbb R^2)$,
$F(x^2+y^2+z^2,xy-z)=0,~F \in C^1(\Bbb R^2)$,
I solved the problem using the characteristics system $$\frac{dx}{y+zx}=\frac{dy}{-(x+zy)}=\frac{dz}{x^2-y^2},$$ to get the general solution $$F(u,v)=0, u=x^2+y^2-z^2,~v=xy+z~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~(a)$$ or $$F(u,v)=0, u=x^2+y^2-z^2,~v=(x+y)^2-(z-1)^2~~~~~~~~~~~(b)$$But I am unable to verify the option 2 as the system (for $(a)$) $$F_x=(2x-2zz_x)F_u+(y+z_x)F_v=0,$$ $$F_y=(2y-2zz_y)F_u+(x+z_y)F_v=0,$$ $$F_z=-2zF_u+F_v=0,$$ provides, $$x+zy=0,$$ $$y+zx=0.$$ Also, I could not eliminate other options by the same procedure. Any help to find the erroneous steps in the concern would be appreciated.
I dont remember the source, where I have seen that the PDE satisfied by $$F(u(x,y,z),v(x,y,z))=0,$$ is given by $$\det \begin{pmatrix}u_x&v_x\\u_y&v_y\end{pmatrix}=0~~~~~~~~~~(d)$$ If so, I am interested in the justification along with the uniqueness of such PDE? Can we see the uniqueness up to some multiple?
Interestingly, Is this determinant equation, a consequence of the non-vanishing nature of gradient indicated in this post?
In addition, I feel the influence of Implicit function theorem here, while I couldn't connect.