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Consider the following (Lp). $$ \min \;\; \mathbf{c} \cdot \mathbf{x}\\ \text{s.t. } A\mathbf{x} \geq \mathbf{b} \\ \mathbf{x} \geq \mathbf{0} \\ $$ If $S$ is the feasable set of (Lp), Prove that the following definitions are equivalent.

  1. (Lp) is unbounded if $\; ∃ \{x^v\}_{v}⊆ S $ $ ;cx^v → −∞ \;$ as $v → ∞.$

  2. (Lp) is unbounded if $\; ∀x ∈ S,\; ∃ \,y ∈ S\;;\; c y < cx.$

Proving 1 $\Rightarrow$ 2 is an easy result from the definiton of limits.

Proving 2 $\Rightarrow$ 1 is not easy! There is no guarantee that you can find a sequence whose limit goes to $−∞$. The fact that we have a decreasing sequence of $cx$ for $x ∈ S$ does not necessarily imply (1). Maybe this sequence doesn't get less than a specific number, i.e, it has an infimum in ℝ.

Remark : If all coordinates of $c$ are positive, since we know that $ x >= 0$ it results that for any $x ∈ S$, $cx >= 0.$ In this case of course the limit of any such sequence is not $−∞$.

What are your thoughts? Are these 2 definitions really equivalent?

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    A special property of linear programming is that if a problem has a finite infimum, then it must be attainable at some $x$. – Kittayo Oct 13 '22 at 21:26
  • One method is to show that for any $x$ there is a vertex $x'$ which mas the same or lower cost. – copper.hat Oct 13 '22 at 22:04
  • One way to do this is to show that if the LP is bounded below, then the $\inf$ is attained at some point $x^$. You can show that if $x \in S$, then there is an extreme point $x' \in S$ such that $c^T x' \le c^T x$ (this needs to be proved). Furthermore, there are only a finite number of extreme points (this needs to be proved), and so there is a minimiser $x^$ (and so no feasible $y$ can exist such that $c^Ty < c^T x^*$). (It might be easier to go with the standard form of the constraints $Ax=b, x \ge 0$.) – copper.hat Oct 14 '22 at 05:25
  • Any progress? ${}$ – copper.hat Oct 15 '22 at 18:28
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    Just for reference: Extreme point existence http://www.cs.cmu.edu/afs/cs/user/glmiller/public/Scientific-Computing/F-11/RelatedWork/Goemans-LP-notes.pdf, finite number http://www.princeton.edu/~aaa/Public/Teaching/ORF363_COS323/F15/ORF363_COS323_F15_Lec11.pdf – copper.hat Oct 16 '22 at 21:31

1 Answers1

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The existence of an optimal solution is a fundamental concern

Is there an optimal solution? A solution is not worse than any other solution is called an optimal solution.

That is a fundamental question in the theory of linear programming. It is, in fact, a question of foremost importance in any problem that asks to find the optimal value/solution of some objective function.

In the case of linear programming, this question should have been answered in every introductory course on linear programming, either explicitly or implicitly.

As you have pointed out, the answer is not obvious as one might have thought.

(Another fundamental question that usually goes together with the existence is the uniqueness.)

Yes, there is an optimal solution with standard assumptions in linear programming

Assume the objective is to minimize some linear function. The case of maximizing is the same as to minimize the negative of the objective function.

Assume the feasible region is nonempty. Otherwise, there is no solution, let alone an optimal solution.

Assume the objective function in the feasible region is bounded from below. Otherwise, given any solution, there is a solution that lets the objective function take a smaller value.

With the assumptions above, a problem of linear programming given in the canonical form as given in the question, which is repeated below, always has an optimal solution.

$$\begin{array}{rl} \text{find} & {\bf x}\\ \min & {\bf c} \cdot {\bf x}\\ \text{s.t.} &A{\bf x} \geq {\bf b} \\ &{\bf x} \geq \bf0 \\ \end{array}$$

Why does there exist an optimal solution?

Note a linear function on a closed convex subset of $\Bbb R^d$ that is bounded below might not attain its infimum. For example, the function $y$ on the region $\{(x,y)\mid 0<x\text{ and } y\ge 1/x\}$ does not attain its infimum, $0$. So it is not obvious that there exists an optimal solution.

The feasible region, as intersection of half-spaces which are convex spaces, is a possibly-unbounded polyhedron that is also convex. We will use "the polyhedron" and "the feasible region" interchangeably.

Since the objective function is linear, its minimum value on any line segment can be attained on either endpoint of that line segment. Moving a point along line segments in the polyhedron to their endpoints along the direction that lowers the value of the objective function repeatedly, we can either find a boundary point of the polyhedron that attains the infimum of the objective function or realize that the objective function is not bounded from below. This is ensured by the finiteness of the dimension of $\Bbb R^d$ and the "finiteness" of the shape of the boundary of the polyhedron.

Rigorous proof

We can follow along the material given in this course handout.

Apass.Jack
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  • It should have been noted that it takes finitely many steps for the simplex algorithm to finds there is no vertex (which implies either the infimum is finite and it has been reached or the infimum is negative infinity) or finds a vertex of the polytope. (An extreme point is also a vertex of the possibly-unbounded polytope of the feasible region.) – Apass.Jack Oct 17 '22 at 02:29
  • Thanks for your answer but I'm a newbie in linear programming and I just recently started taking this course at uni. I know the basics up to the convexity of the feasible region, not things like the simplex algorithm or extreme points. Do you think it can be proved using simpler terms? – Farhad Rouhbakhsh Oct 17 '22 at 17:10
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    @ Yes. In fact, the reference to the simplex algorithm can be removed. What is important is the convexity of the feasible region and the finiteness of the vertices of the polytope. I will update in a day. – Apass.Jack Oct 17 '22 at 17:22
  • It looks like I managed to discover a simpler way to prove the existence of an optimal solution, which does not refer to the convexity. Allow me another day to sort it out. – Apass.Jack Oct 18 '22 at 20:22
  • That seems implausible. – copper.hat Oct 19 '22 at 02:21
  • @copper.hat Indeed, convexity will be used at least implicitly. – Apass.Jack Oct 23 '22 at 22:27
  • @FarhadRouhbakhsh It looks like it takes a while to factor out a proof that is simple enough. I am trying to write what might be the simplest direct proof. – Apass.Jack Oct 23 '22 at 22:31