There are two questions
S is the set of all people and R is the relation on set S such that $(a, b) \in R$, where $a$ and $b$ are people if $a$ is taller than $b$
According to the solution, this relation is anti-symmetric, which makes sense at first look. Clearly if $a$ is taller than $b$, then $b$ cannot be taller than $a$. Moving on to the second question;
S is the set of all people and R is the relation on set S such that $(a, b) \in R$, where $a$ and $b$ are people if $a$ is not taller than $b$
Now according to the solution, this is not anti-symmetric, since while it is true that if $a$ is not taller than $b$, then $b$ is not taller than $a$, unless $a$ and $b$ are of the same height, but that does not be $a = b$ since they are two distinct people, hence the equality does not hold.
The equality part is confusing me. If we look at the first question, and the definition of anti-symmetry
the relation R is antisymmetric if $aRb$ and $bRa$ implies $a = b$.
and clearly, $a$ cannot be taller than $a$, so why is the first question anti-symmetric while the second one is declared anti-symmetric based on the same equality technicality?
For more clarification, let $aRb$ in the first question. Then $b \not R a$ unless $a = b$ according to the very definition of anti-symmetry. But it is not true that $a R a$, so how can we declare it to be anti-symmetric?