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We've

  • informally defined $\ln$ as giving the area under $y=1/x$;
  • defined $\exp$ as the inverse of $\ln$;
  • shown that $\exp$ is (strictly) increasing.

Now, how might we also show that $\exp$ is increasing at a (strictly) increasing rate, but without using calculus?

(A rigorous proof is ideal but an informal argument would do too. Context: High school.)


Let $f:D \to C$ be a real-valued function of a real variable. We say that

  • $f$ is strictly increasing if for all $a,b \in D$ with $a<b$, we have$f(a)<f(b)$;
  • moreover, $f$ is strictly increasing at a strictly increasing rate if for all $a,b,c \in D$ with $a<b$ and $c-b=b-a$, we have$f(b)-f(a)<f(c)-f(b)$.
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    What do you mean by "without using calculus"? What exactly is and isn't allowed? You can use the inverse function theorem to get from your first two statements to $\exp'=\exp$, and then from there you can keep going to get $\exp''=\exp$ etc. But if that's "not allowed" then we'll need to know what is allowed. – Ian Oct 24 '22 at 01:58
  • How are you defining the area under a curve without calculus? Or if that's just your informal construction of $\log x$, what is its proper construction? – anomaly Oct 24 '22 at 02:14
  • @Ian: No use of limits, $\epsilon$-$\delta$ arguments, results about derivatives (whether derived or simply given). –  Oct 24 '22 at 02:14
  • @anomaly: The proper construction would be $\ln x=\int_{1}^{x}\frac{1}{t} dt$ –  Oct 24 '22 at 02:16
  • Might as well use calculus if you're already defining $\log x$ via an integral. In any case, one of the standard proofs is noting that $\exp$ is the unique solution of the differential equation $y' = y, y(0) = 1$. That immediately gives you $e^{x + x'} = e^x e^{x'}$ and the fact that $\exp$ is increasing on a neighborhood of $0$, from which it follows that $\exp$ is increasing everywhere. You could probably arrange a hand-waving explanation of those two points without introducing calculus. – anomaly Oct 24 '22 at 02:27
  • If you know that $e^x = \lim (1 + x/n)^n$, and hence $e^x = \sum (x^n/n!)$ and that each of the $x^n$ are increasing at an increasing rate, you could piece that argument together.

    Depends on what you know.

    – Mike O'Connor Oct 24 '22 at 02:43
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    Rate without calculus is a peculiar thing. – copper.hat Oct 24 '22 at 03:37
  • Since $\ln x$ is the integral of $1/x$, its graph is increasing and concave down. Since $e^x$ is the inverse function of $\ln x$, its graph is increasing and concave up. – Deane Oct 24 '22 at 11:29

2 Answers2

1

Here is an argument without using any limits. If you don't want to define the reals, you can assume the domain consists of the rationals. We will assume without proof that given any positive continuous function $f$ on an interval $[a,b]$, that we can define $A_f(a,b)$ to be the area under the graph $y=f(x)$, $a \le x \le b$. We also assume the following:

  1. If $f < g$ on the interval $[a,b]$, then $A_f(a,b) < A_g(a,b)$.
  2. The area is invariant under sliding along the $x$ axis. In other words, if $a < b$, $\Delta> 0$, and $g(x) = f(x+\Delta)$, then $$ A_g(a,b) = A_f(a+\Delta,b+\delta). $$
  3. Additivity: If $a \le b \le c$, then $$ A(a,c) = A(a,b) + A(b,c). $$ Denote the area under $1/t$, $a \le t \le b$ by simply $A(a,b)$ and Define $$ \ln x = A(1,x). $$

By additivity, if $x < y$, then $$ \ln y = A(1,y) = A(1,x) + A(x,y) > \ln x, $$ so $\ln x$ is an increasing function of $x$.

Moreover, given $\Delta > 0$, since $1/t$ is a decreasing function, if $a < b$, then by the invariance under sliding, $$ A(a,a+\Delta) < A(b,b+\Delta). $$ You can also see this geometrically simply by sliding the graph of $1/x$, $b \le x \le b+\Delta$ left to the interval $a \le x \le a+\Delta$ and observing that the region under this graph lies inside the graph of $1/x$, $a \le x \le a+\Delta$

Therefore, given any $\Delta > 0$ and $a < b$, $$ (\ln (b+\Delta) - \ln b) - (\ln (a +\Delta) - \ln a) < 0. $$ Therefore, the graph of $\ln x$ is increasing and concave down.

We now define $e^x$ to be the inverse function of $\ln x$. Its graph is the reflection of the graph of $\ln x$ about the line $y=x$. Therefore, its graph is increasing and concave up. In particular, if $a < b$ and $\Delta > 0$, then $$ (e^{b+\Delta}-e^b) - (e^{a+\Delta}-e^a) > 0. $$ It follows that its rate of increase is increasing.

Gary
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Deane
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  • How do we get from "$(\ln (b+\Delta) - \ln b) - (\ln (a +\Delta) - \ln a) < 0$" to "$(e^{b+\Delta}-e^b) - (e^{a+\Delta}-e^a) > 0$"? –  Oct 25 '22 at 02:21
  • It follows from the fact that if the graph of a function is concave down (like $\ln x$, then the graph of the inverse function is concave up (like $e^x$). – Deane Oct 26 '22 at 01:44
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Hint I

It is the case that $e^x \ge \frac{x^3}{6}+\frac{x^2}{2}+x+1$ for all values of $x \in \mathbb{R}$.

This result can be derived from the Taylor Expansion of $e^x$ (I'm not sure whether or not you have come across this concept before). This is lower bound is strictly increasing for all values of $x \in \mathbb{R}$.

Therefore, $e^x$ is greater than a strictly increasing function, which (at the very least) tells us that the second derivative of $e^x$ will grow indefinitely as $x \rightarrow \infty$.

If you already know about the taylor expansion of $e^x$ or are curious about this, then you can use this to build up an informal intuition of why it might be the case that $e^x$ must be strictly increasing.

Hint II

To give you an even more informal perspective, we can simply study the graph of $e^x$ and look at the intuition behind why it has a strictly positive second derivative.

enter image description here

Not only is the graph increasing (postive first derivative), but we can see (informally), that the speed at which it is increasing is increasing for larger values of $x$ (positive second derivative).

FD_bfa
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    “… without using calculus” – FShrike Oct 24 '22 at 12:15
  • Understanding my answer doesn't require any calculus. If the OP reads about the taylor expansion of $e^x$, and sees that if you stop after a finite number of terms, then this is a lower bound, then this provides some (informal) intuition - without needing to know any of the calculus behind the expansion @FShrike – FD_bfa Oct 24 '22 at 13:24