While I have a basic understanding of what this definition states, I've been running into trouble interpreting the results when I test it with certain sets other than the traditional examples used to show that the Rationals do not have this property.
$\textbf{Definition 1.10:}$
"An ordered set is said to have the least-upper-bound property if the following is true: $$\text{If }\subset\text{, }E \text{ is not empty, and } \text{ is bounded above, then } \sup() \text{ exists in } ."$$ $\\$
I am interpreting this as a series of nested conditional statements: $$\Big[ \big( \left( E\subset S \right) \land \left( E \neq \varnothing \right) \land \left( E \text{ bounded above}\right) \big) \implies (\ \sup(E) \text{ exists in }S)\ \Big] \implies S \text{ has LUB property}$$
From here, we usually let $S=\mathbb{Q}$ and $E=\{q\in\mathbb{Q}:q^2<2 \}$ to show that $\mathbb{Q}$ does not have the LUB property. This makes sense to me because while the antecedent within brackets is true, the consequent is false. Thus the bracketed conditional is false, forcing the entire definition to be true.
But what about if (for example) $S=\mathbb{Q}$ and $E=\{q\in\mathbb{Q}:q^2<-1\}$ ?
In this case, $E=\varnothing$, thus the antecedent within the brackets is false. This renders the entire conditional in brackets true. Then the whole definition can only be true if $\mathbb{Q}$ has the LUB property - which is clearly wrong.
Can someone help me track down my misunderstanding?