I need to prove that $\lim_{x\to\infty} f(x)=1$ where $f(x)=(x^2+g(x))/(x^2+1)$ with $g:(0,\infty)\to\mathbb{R}$ and $|g(x)|\leq 5x$.
Here's my proof so far:
We need to prove that for all $\epsilon>0$ there exists an M>0 so that $|f(x)-1|<\epsilon$ for all x>M (this is the definition we use in class).
Thus, we have $|f(x)-1|=|(x^2+g(x))/(x^2+1)-1|=|(g(x)-1)/(x^2+1)|$. Now, since $x^2\geq 0$ for all x, $x^2+1>1$ and thus we get $|(g(x)-1)/(x^2+1)|=|g(x)-1|/(x^2+1)<|g(x)-1|/1=|g(x)-1|$
Here's where I get stuck. I know I need to somehow use the fact that $|g(x)|\leq 5x$ and after that find an M>0 such that for all x>M $|g(x)-1|<\epsilon$. Any help is appreciated!