Starting with the identity matrix, $I_n$ ($n \in \mathbb{N}$), if I swap two distinct rows $a$ and $b$, and then multiply this matrix by $M$, the result is the same as had I just swapped the rows in $A$. I have proved this, something along these lines
$$ S = \begin{cases} 1 \text{ if $i=j$ and $i \ne a$ and $i \ne b$} \\ 1 \text{ if $i=a$ and $j=b$} \\ 1 \text{ if $i=b$ and $j=a$} \\ 0 \text{ otherwise} \end{cases} $$
Then, multiplying $S$ by $M$,
$$ (SA)_{i,j} = \sum_{x=1}^{j} S_{i, x} M_{x, j} $$
So in the case where $i \ne a$ and $i \ne b$ this is just $M_{i, j}$, and in the case where $i=a$ then this is just $M_{b, j}$ and in the case $i=b$ it is just $M_{a, j}$ (i.e. all the rows of $M$ have been swapped).
However, what confuses me is why it is the case that it is the rows and not the columns which are swapped (in $M$)? The identity matrix is symmetric $I = I^T$ and thus (I feel a bit nervous about saying this, as I couldn't prove it "rigorously" unfortunately) swapping the rows is the same as swapping the columns. However, for an arbitrary matrix $M$ swapping rows is definitely not the same as swapping columns). Why does this swap rows and not swap columns?