If $f_1(n) \in \Theta(g(n))$ and $f_2(n) \in \Theta(g(n))$, then $f_1(n) - f_2(n) \in \Theta(g(n))$.
If this is true, prove it. Otherwise, provide a counterexample.
Alright so my understanding is, a big theta operation basically means the complexity is equal? like with the formula, it can't be over or under therefore has to be in the middle, my question is how do I sole this question with no algorithm or equation?