If $A \subset B$ is an integral extension, then $\frac{A}{I} $ is integral over $\frac{B}{J}$ where $I=J \cap A$.
I was able to prove this but I am wondering why can't be generalise it for any ideal of $A$?
I was looking for some counterexamples in this case.
Can I try with $I=\mathbb{Q} \subset \mathbb{Q}=A$ and $J={0} \subset \mathbb{Q}(\sqrt2)$
In this case we have $\frac{A}{I}=0$ and $\frac{B}{J}=B$ and definitely $B$ isn't integral over $0$ because there doesn't even exists any non-constant polynomial.
I would like to see some more interesting examples