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May I ask for details about how can I prove "linearity of everything" for the following step?

$(f^*dx_i)(Y) = \sum_{j = 1}^lY^j (f^*dx_i)(\frac{\partial}{\partial y^j}) = \sum_{j = 1}^lY^jdx_i(f_*(\frac{\partial}{\partial y^j}))$.

Tumbleweed
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1 Answers1

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Check out my comments to my answer to this question, clearly the one to which you refer. Feel free to leave comments if you need more info. Cheers, RKL.

Community
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Robert Lewis
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