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Is the following convolution property true?

$$\text{If} \ y(t)=x(t)*h(t) , \text{then} \ y(t)=\int_{-\infty}^{t} [x'(\tau)*h(\tau)] \,d\tau $$

My proof :

Let's denote by $g$ the integrand $g(\tau)=x'(\tau)*h(\tau)$, then $ y(t)=\int_{-\infty}^{t} g(\tau) \,d\tau=g(t)*u(t)=x'(t)*h(t)*u(t) $

(where $u$ denotes the heaviside step function).

We know that $x'(t)*u(t)=x(t)$, then we would have $y(t)=x'(t)*u(t)*h(t)=x(t)*h(t)$, so the property is true.

Is this correct? I'm not sure if I did the integral right.

Jean Marie
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  • I have taken the liberty to re-write some parts of your text in order for it to be more readable. I wish you agree with it. Besides, your property isn't exact. I am going to explain why by a direct differentiation + integration proof. – Jean Marie Nov 05 '22 at 07:26