Is the following convolution property true?
$$\text{If} \ y(t)=x(t)*h(t) , \text{then} \ y(t)=\int_{-\infty}^{t} [x'(\tau)*h(\tau)] \,d\tau $$
My proof :
Let's denote by $g$ the integrand $g(\tau)=x'(\tau)*h(\tau)$, then $ y(t)=\int_{-\infty}^{t} g(\tau) \,d\tau=g(t)*u(t)=x'(t)*h(t)*u(t) $
(where $u$ denotes the heaviside step function).
We know that $x'(t)*u(t)=x(t)$, then we would have $y(t)=x'(t)*u(t)*h(t)=x(t)*h(t)$, so the property is true.
Is this correct? I'm not sure if I did the integral right.