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Let $G$ be a connected and compact Lie Group and $\mathfrak{g}$ be its Lie Algebra. We define an action of $\mathfrak{g}$ on the space of smooth functions $C^{\infty} (G)$ on G as:

$$X f(g) = \frac{d}{dt}f(ge^{tX} ) |_{t=0}$$

It is claimed that the mapping

$$ \phi: \mathfrak{g} \to \mathfrak{gl}(C^{\infty}(G))$$

defined as above is a Lie Algebra homomorphism. My attempt is as follows:

Essentially we need to show that $$ \psi([X,Y]) f(g) = ((\psi(X) \circ \psi(Y)) - (\psi(Y) \circ \psi(X)))f(g) $$

The right hand side equals $$(\psi(X) \circ \psi(Y))f(g) - (\psi(Y) \circ \psi(X))f(g)$$ $$= \psi(X)(\frac{d}{dt}f(ge^{tY} ) |_{t=0}) - \psi(Y)(\frac{d}{dt}f(ge^{tX} ) |_{t=0})$$

Whereas the left-hand side is $$\frac{d}{dt} f(ge^{t[X,Y]})|_{t=0}$$

I'm not sure how the left-hand and right-hand sides of the equations are meant to equal each other especially since it seems like the right-hand side would involve taking two derivatives.

Any help would be useful.

tmbbdil
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  • It might be good to add more context to the question; e.g. the source, what you are allowed to use, what definitions you are using etc.. The statement you are asking about is valid in a broader setting (e.g. it's true for smooth actions). – Alp Uzman Nov 12 '22 at 20:36
  • e.g. see https://math.stackexchange.com/q/4574744/169085 – Alp Uzman Nov 12 '22 at 20:37
  • @AlpUzman your link there is back to this question – Callum Nov 13 '22 at 11:30
  • @Callum Thanks, I meant https://math.stackexchange.com/q/582986/169085 – Alp Uzman Nov 13 '22 at 11:32

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