It appears to me that pull-back on a manifold
If $f: X \to Y$ is a smooth map and $\omega$ is a $p$-form on $Y$, define a $p$-form $f^*\omega$ on $X$ as follows: $$f^*\omega(x) = (df_x)^*\omega[f(x)].$$
is defined by pull-back on the linear space:
Suppose $A: V \to W$ is a linear map. Then the transpose map $A^*: W^* \to V^*$ extends to the exterior algebras, $A^*: \Lambda^p(W^*) \to \Lambda^p(V^*)$ for all $p>0$. If $T \in \Lambda^p(W^*)$, just define $A^* T \in \Lambda^p(V^*)$ by $$A^*T(v_1, \dots, v_p) = T(Av_1, \dots, Av_p)$$ for all vectors $v_1, \dots, v_p \in V$.
So my observation is to put in $df^*$ as $A^*$, $\omega$ as $T$, and $f(x) = (f^1(x), \dots, f^p(x))$ as $v_1, \dots, v_p$: $$f^*\omega(x) = (df_x)^*\omega[f(x)] = \omega(df_x f^1(x), \dots, df_x f^p(x)) = \omega \circ df_x(f^1(x), \dots, f^p(x)).$$
I know it should result in $\omega \circ df_x(x_1, \dots, x_q)$, where $p$ is the dimension of $Y$, and $q$ is the dimension of $X$. But where I messed it up?
Why $\omega[f(x)]$ is $\omega \circ df_x(x_1, \dots, x_q)$, instead of $\omega \circ df_x(f^1(x), \dots, f^p(x))$?
Here's an example showing my confusion, from James S. Cook's answer to the question Intuition about pullbacks in differential geometry
So in his answer, he states:
$$ \Psi^*(\omega)(\partial_1,\partial_2,\partial_3,\partial_4)=\omega (\Psi_*(\partial_1), \Psi_*(\partial_2),\Psi_*(\partial_2),\Psi_*(\partial_4)).$$
I see it reasonable. However, in my textbook, pull-back is defined to be $$f^*\omega(x) = (df_x)^*\omega[f(x)].$$
Therefore, I understand it as: $$ \Psi^*(\omega)(\partial_1,\partial_2,\partial_3,\partial_4)=\omega (\Psi_*(f^1(\partial_1,\partial_2,\partial_3,\partial_4), \cdots, \Psi_*(f^4(\partial_1,\partial_2,\partial_3,\partial_4)).$$