I am interested in obtaining a lower bound for the function
$$ f(t) = \frac{t + (1-t)p_1}{1+2t}\cdot \frac{t + (1-t)p_2}{1+t}, $$
defined on $(0,1)$, where $p_1$ and $p_2$ are two constants with the constraint that $p_1 + p_2 \leq 1$ and they are both strictly positive. Playing around with a graphing tool I have convinced myself that a lower bound is given by $\frac{2}{3}p_1p_2$, and that this bound is sharp. (Here, I mean that for any choice of $p_1, p_2$ the value is a lower bound, even though it might not necessarily be achieved for arbitrary $p_1$ and $p_2$. But taking $p_1 = p_2 = \frac{1}{2}$ and letting $t \to 1$ we get a function value of $\frac{1}{6} = \frac{2}{3}p_1p_2$, so in general we for sure can't find a better bound without more assumptions.)
Unfortunately, I struggle with formally showing that this gives in fact a lower bound.
I tried assuming that $p_2 \leq \frac{1}{2}$ (since by the condition not both parameters can be larger than $\frac{1}{2}$ and then using the fact that $1-p_2 \geq p_2$. With that, I can bound the factor on the right by $p_2$, but I suspect that this method is too loose since then I have no way to bound the left factor.
Maybe someone sees a fairly straight-forward way to show the lower bound? Thanks!
UPDATE Since I am really trying to avoid going down the Calculus route, i followed @Thomas Andrews suggestions from the comments and looked at $f(t) - \frac{2}{3}p_1p_2$ in the hopes of being able to show that the resulting numerator is always positive. I have made the following progress.
We can compute
$$ f(t) - \frac{2}{3}p_1p_2 = -\frac{3p_1t^2 + p_1p_2t^2 + 3p_2t^2 - 3p_1t + 12p_1p_2t - 3p_2t - p_1p_2 - 3t^2}{3(t+1)(2t+1)}. $$
Therefore we can look at the numerator:
$$ 3t^2 - 12p_1p_2t+3p_1t-3p_1t^2 + 3p_2t - 3p_2t^2 +\underbrace{p_1p_2 - p_1p_2t^2}_{\geq 0}. $$
Since the last two summands together are nonnegative, we can proceed to show that the first six summands together are nonnegative. These first six terms factor as
$$ 3(1-(p_1+p_2))t^2 + 3t(p_1+p_2 - 4p_1p_2), $$ and since $p_1+p_2 \leq 1$ the first summand is non-negative. We have thus reduced the problem to showing that
$$ p_1+p_2-4p_1p_2 \geq 0, $$ where the only thing we really have at our disposition is the fact that $p+q \leq 1$. I suspect this to be true, but seem to struggle with a proof. But this seems like it should not be a big deal. Anyone seeing how to show this?
UPDATE 2 Thanks to @Svyatoslav, here is a way to finish the argument.
Let us write $p = s^2, q = t^2$, so that we have $s^2 + t^2 \leq 1$. We can parametrize $s$ and $t$ by $s = r\cos(\phi), t = r\sin(\phi)$, so that we have $s^2 + t^2 = r^2 \leq 1$. Using this and the double angle formula, we can then obtain $$ p+q-4pq = r^2 - 4r^4\sin^2\phi\cos^2\phi = r^2 - r^4\sin^2 (2\phi) \geq r^2 - r^2\sin^2 (2\phi) = r^2\cos^2(2\phi) \geq 0. $$
This shows that indeed, $\frac{2}{3}p_1p_2$ is a lower bound of $f$.