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I have a several questions on the following problem.

Let X = {1,2}. There are 4 mappings from set X to itself, denoted End(X) and all the compositions betwen them are defined. If we denote f $\in$ End(X) as a 2-letter word (f(1), f(2)) (note: viewing images of mappings as words of length n, made from letters of an m-word alphapet, where a word is any combination of letters, was discussed in a previous exercise), then those 4 endomorphisms will be written as the following "words":

(1,1), (1,2) = $Id_X$, (2,1), (2,2)

The table for g $\circ$ f is below (g vertical and f horizontal):

\begin{array}{|c|c|c|c|} \hline g/f& (1,1) & (1,2) & (2,1) &(2,2) \\ \hline (1,1)& (1,1) & (1,1)& (1,1)&(1,1) \\ \hline (1,2)& (1,1) & (1,2)&(2,1) &(2,2) \\ \hline (2,1)& (2,2) &(2,1) &(1,2) &(1,1)\\ \hline (2,2)& (2,2) & (2,2)& (2,2)& (2,2)\\ \hline \end{array}

The first question is on the (f(1), f(2)) "word". It can output 4 different values: (1,1), (1,2), (2,1), (2,2), which are all the elements of the set End(X). However, I don't understand why only (1,1) and (1,2) are chosen in the definition, both relating to f(1)

(1,1), (1,2) = $Id_X$, (2,1), (2,2)

Also I don't get how the mapping works, e.g. when g = (2,1) and f = (1,1), g $\circ$ f = g( (1,1) ) = (2,2). In a function, g(f(1))= g(1) would be undefined, since there 1 is not in g's first coordinate. So I'm assuming the definition defines this, although I don't understand when either (1,1) or (1,2) equals either of $Id_X$/(2,1)/(2,2).

John Doe
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1 Answers1

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I am not entirely sure that I understand the questions, so I will just discuss the four maps in detail. For this purpose let $v,w,x,y:X\rightarrow X$ be given by \begin{align*} v(1)&=1,\quad v(2)=1,\\ w(1)&=1,\quad w(2)=2,\\ x(1)&=2,\quad x(2)=1,\\ y(1)&=2,\quad y(2)=2. \end{align*} On the other hand, let $v'=(v'_1,v'_2)=(1,1)$, $w'=(w'_1,w'_2)=(1,2)$, $x'=(x'_1,x'_2)=(2,1)$, $y'=(y'_1,y'_2)=(2,2)$. Notice that $v'_1=1=v(1)$, $v'_2=1=v(2)$, further $w'_1=1=w(1)$, $w'_2=2=w(2)$, also $x'_1=2=x(1)$, $x'_2=1=x(2)$ and finally $y'_1=2=y(1)$, $y'_2=2=y(2)$. So, there is a clear correspondence between these functions and words (or points, as I would call them, in $\mathbb R^2$). From this perspective, it does not matter at all if you think of $v$ as a function and use the functional notation $v(1)=1$, or as a word $v=v'$ and use the subscript notation $v_1=1$.

It is pointed out that $(1,2)$ is the identity. This means $\mathrm{id}_X=w$ as a function, or $\mathrm{id}_X=w'$ as a word. Hence, the four endomorphisms are listed as $(1,1),(1,2)=\mathrm{id}_X,(2,1),(2,2)$.

Recall the composition of functions, say for $f=y\circ x$ we have $f(1)=y(x(1))=y(2)=2$ and $f(2)=y(x(2))=y(1)=2$, meaning that $f=y$. I would say that it is less common to compose words like this, but using the correspondence above we can also consider $(2,2)\circ(2,1)=y'\circ x'=y\circ x=y=y'=(2,2)$, to make sense of this expression.

John Doe
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Matija
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  • Thank you for such a detailed answer! You helped a lot, and i get it at last. My weird questions are because I assumed $(1,1), (1,2)$ was the left side of an equation, and $Id_X, (2,1), (2,2)$ was the RHS. Very weird how that happened but oh well. Also was trying to do the whole mapping at once, instead of first looking for the value of f(1), and then value of f(2). – John Doe Dec 23 '22 at 23:04