I know this is the multinomial theorem which is $$(a_1 + a_2 +a_3+... +a_n)^m=\sum_{k_1+k_2+...+k_n=m}\frac{m!}{k_1!\cdot...\cdot k_n!}a_1^{k_1}\cdot...\cdot a_n^{k_n}$$, but want to ask if my thought process is correct and if I made any mistakes using the sigma notation operations.
My attempt:
$$\begin{align} (a_1 + a_2 + \cdots + a_m)^n &= \left(\sum_{i=1}^m a_i\right)^n \\ &= \sum_{i=1}^m a_i \sum_{j=1}^m a_j \sum_{k=1}^m a_k \cdots\text{n times}\cdots \sum_{z=1}^m a_z\\ &= \sum_{i=1}^m \sum_{j=1}^m \sum_{k=1}^m \cdots \sum_{z=1}^m a_i a_j a_k \cdots a_z \\ &= \sum_{i=1}^m a_i^n + n ((\sum_{1 \le i < j \le m} a_i a_j + \sum_{1 \le i < k \le m} a_i a_k + \cdots \sum_{1 \le i< z \le m}a_i a_z) \\ &+ (\sum_{1 \le j < k \le m} a_j a_k + \sum_{1 \le j < l \le m} a_j a_l + \cdots \sum_{1 \le j< z \le m}a_j a_z) + \cdots + a_y a_z).\end{align}$$
Is this correct and/or can it be simplified further?