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Exercise 1.6.28. The partial computable functions are not closed under $μ$. Prove that there is a p.c. function $θ$ such that $λx [ μy [ ψ(x, y) = 1 ] ]$ is not p.c.

Found this little problem that seems so simple which makes it the more interesting that I did not come up with a solution just yet and would appreciate some insight. I was thinking that we can use the s-m-n lemma to build a p.c function based on the condition that some p.c function is equal to some higher than non-computable in the limit real but given the unbound search on the indices we could realize it. Here is what I mean briefly:

$$ \theta(x,y) = \begin{cases} 1 & \begin{array}{l}\text{if $\varphi_{y}(x) = $ some random real with respect to} \\ \text{this particular encoding of programs,}\end{array} \\[0.5em] \mathit{undefined} & \text{otherwise}. \end{cases} $$

What I have in mind is that given the unbounded search, we could make the encoding so that no p.c function will ever hit the real, but the operator would eventually do so. Not sure how correct this is.

H.C Manu
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1 Answers1

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Your goto when asked to show a function isn't partial-computable should be reduction of the halting problem. Here the key insight is that $$\mu y(\theta(x,y) \downarrow = 1) = k$$ implies that $\theta(x,z)\downarrow = 1$ does not hold for any $z<k,$ so we can obtain some information about the halting behavior for inputs smaller than $k$.

So we can consider the partial computable function $\theta(x,y)$ defined by $$ \begin{eqnarray}\theta(x,0) &=& \begin{cases}1& \Phi_x(x)\downarrow\\\uparrow&\Phi_x(x) \uparrow\end{cases} \\\\ \theta(x,y) &=& 1, \;\;\mbox{for } y\ne0. \end{eqnarray}$$

Then we have $$ \mu y(\theta(x,y)\downarrow= 1) = \begin{cases}0& \Phi_x(x)\downarrow\\1&\Phi_x(x)\uparrow\end{cases}$$ which is not computable.


EDIT

I think there is some potential for confusion here, so I'll add a quick note on the notation.

Looking through Soare's book, it's a bit annoying that he never seems to define $\mu$ (though perhaps I missed it). However, from the context of this problem and Theorem 1.5.7 preceding it, it's clear that he means $\mu x\phi(x)$ to be the minimum $x$ satisfying $\phi(x)$ (if such an $x$ exists, else undefined).

This is straightforward enough, but is potentially confusing due to the fact that in the theory of $\mu$-recursive functions, $\mu$ is often defined with a similar, but subtly different meaning. Namely, if $f(x,\vec y)$ is a partial recursive function, we define $\mu xf(x, \vec y)$ as the result of an unbounded search for an $x$ with $f(x, \vec y ) =0$. In other words, it is the least $x$ such $f(x,\vec y) = 0$ and for all $z < x,$ $f(z,y)$ is defined (if such an $x$ exists, else undefined).

This last stipulation that $f(z,y)$ be defined for all $z<x$ is crucial to the conception of of $\mu$ as not merely "minimization", as it is sometimes called, but as a (manifestly computable) unbounded search. Essentially, it enforces the idea that if one of the steps of the unbounded search fails to halt, then so must the whole search. This is the idea Soare is trying to get across (in a more general context than $\mu$-recursive functions) between this exercise and Theorem 1.5.7.

The potential for confusion is made even worse by the fact that some authors, in defining the $\mu$-recursive functions, don't include the stipulation that $f(z,y)$ be defined for all $z<x$ in the definition of $\mu$, but instead fix the closure issue by demanding that $\mu$ only be applied to total functions. This is much worse aesthetically than the other way, in my opinion, but it works and is fairly common.

  • Just a little thing, why does the first equality tell us that the theta function won't map to 1 for y = 0? – H.C Manu Dec 30 '22 at 19:52
  • @H.CManu if it did, then 0 would be the least $y$ that maps to 1 – spaceisdarkgreen Dec 30 '22 at 20:42
  • But if I understand it is not very import in that could we not generalize the argument to another constant? Say for some k $y<k \theta(x,k)$ is defined as you defined it for k = 0. Am I right or am I missing the core of the argument? – H.C Manu Dec 30 '22 at 21:24
  • @H.CManu I made a change to hopefully clarify what I meant in the passage in question. If this is what you mean by "generalize to another constant", then yes. (I can't quite understand what you wrote, though.) – spaceisdarkgreen Dec 31 '22 at 01:50
  • Thank you. Speaking of theorem 1.5.7, I see now what Soare meant by the necessity of that second conjunct because the argument basicaly rests on the mu-operator "failing" to see that there were earlier values of y for which $\theta(x,y)\downarrow=1$(in this case 0) and so it violates that second conjunct . – H.C Manu Dec 31 '22 at 07:57