I was following this example from Griffiths (example 3.3). The solution to the following problem
$$\frac{\partial^2 V}{\partial x^2}+\frac{\partial^2 V}{\partial y^2}=0$$
$$V(y=0,a)=0$$
$$V(x=0)=V_0$$
is
$$V(x,y) = \sum_{n=1,\text{odd}}^\infty \frac{4V_0}{n\pi} e^{-\frac{n\pi x}{a}} \sin\left(\frac{n\pi y}{a}\right)$$
I am not sure how it satisfies the boundary condition $V(x=0)=V_0$. When I try to put the result in my calculator with $V_0=47,x=0,a=5,N=100$:
$$V(0,y) = \sum_{n=1}^{100} \frac{4 (47)}{(2n+1)\pi} \sin\left(\frac{(2n+1)\pi y}{5}\right)$$
It gives zero when $y=0,5$ and when $y=3$, it gives $-9.7875...$. I expected the answer to be $47$ for all y values. What is the problem?