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Fix two integers $n \geq 1$ and $d \geq 2$. Let $X_{n,d} \subset \mathbb{P}^{n+1}_k$ be the Fermat hypersurface defined by the equation $$ F_{n,d}: X_0^{d}+ \cdots + X_{n+1}^{d} = 0. $$ One can check that it is nonsingular of dimension $n$. In the exam (EDIT: This is from an exam paper in 2017, so this post is not cheating), I was asked to consider the following problem:

Question: Let $p \in X_{n,d}$ be any point. Show that $X_{n,d} \smallsetminus \{p\}$ is not projective. When is it affine?

I managed to see why it is not projective, but got stuck on considering its affineness.

My attempts: When $n \geq 2$, the singleton $\{p\}$ has codimension $\geq 2$ in $X_{n,d}$. Hence by the Hartog extension theorem, the inclusion $i: X_{n,d} \smallsetminus \{p\} \hookrightarrow X_{n,d}$ induces an isomorphism $$ i^{\sharp}: \Gamma(X_{n,d}, \mathcal{O}_{X_{n,d}}) \rightarrow \Gamma(X_{n,d} \smallsetminus \{p\}, \mathcal{O}_{X_{n,d} \smallsetminus \{p\}}) $$ so the global section of $X_{n,d} \smallsetminus \{p\}$ is $k$. If it were affine, then its dimension could be calculated by the Krull dimension of the global section, hence its dimension would be zero, which is absurd. Hence it is not affine.

However, when $n=1$, the Hartog extension theorem is not applicable. Then I do not know what to do. When $n=1$ and $d=2$, if we use the "huge input" that every nonsingular conic in $\mathbb{P}^2$ is isomorphic to $\mathbb{P}^1$, then we see $X_{1,2} \smallsetminus \{p\}$ is affine, isomorphic to $\mathbb{A}^1$. But how about the general degree $d > 2$?

(And as for the "huge input", I do not want to use it since the only proof of it I know is to see both the nonsingular conic in $\mathbb{P}^2$ and $\mathbb{P}^1$ has genus zero, and all genus zero curves are isomorphic by Riemann-Roch. So can we get rid of this input or can we use a more elementary approach for this "huge input"?)

Thank you so much for answering and commenting! Happy new year!

Hetong Xu
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  • I think what you said in your attempt is right, and that you reduced it to the case that $X$ is a degree $d$ fermat plane curve. However the fermat cubic curve is elliptic so it shouldn't be isomorphic (or even birational) to $\mathbb{P}^1$. – Daniel Dec 31 '22 at 07:01
  • @Daniel Thank you for your hints! Yet what do you mean by saying elliptic? I can see that for degree $d \geq 3$ curve $X_{1,d}$, it has genus $>0$ hence not birational to $\mathbb{P}^1$. Yet how does this lead to the conclusion that $X_{1,d} \smallsetminus {p}$ is not affine? Though $X_{1,d} \smallsetminus {p}$ seems not being $\mathbb{A}^1$, how can we exclude the possibility that it is actually some affine variety contained properly in $\mathbb{A}^1$, or that even in higher $\mathbb{A}^m$? Thank you! – Hetong Xu Dec 31 '22 at 09:05
  • I noted that someone gave a downvote of this post. Might you explain the reason so that I can better improve the post? – Hetong Xu Dec 31 '22 at 09:06
  • Every line and every smooth plane conic isomorphic to $\Bbb{P}^1$ not cubic – yi li Dec 31 '22 at 09:55
  • @MarianoSuárez-Álvarez Ah, so sorry I made such a serious typo. So I mean every smooth conic, i.e. a degree $2$ nonsingular curve in $\mathbb{P}^2$. Thank you and also thanks yi li for pointing that out! – Hetong Xu Dec 31 '22 at 10:37
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    It is affine in the rest of the cases. A projective curve minus a point is affine. – Cranium Clamp Dec 31 '22 at 11:06
  • @CraniumClamp Thank you so much! I found these discussions on the fact you provided: https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/1977248 . Thanks! :) – Hetong Xu Dec 31 '22 at 11:30

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