I have the following exercise: In set $X$, let $\mathrel{R_1}$ be the congruence relation modulo 2, and let $\mathrel{R_2}$ be the relation of congruence modulo 3. Determine $\mathrel{R_1}\circ\mathrel{R_2}$.
And i think that in my solution I did not reach the simplest possible form.
Here's my solution:
$x \mathrel{R_1} y \Leftrightarrow x \equiv y \pmod{2}$
$x \mathrel{R_2} y \Leftrightarrow x \equiv y \pmod{3}$
then:
$x \ (\mathrel{R_1}\circ\mathrel{R_2}) \ y \Leftrightarrow \exists_{a \in X}(x \mathrel{R_1} a \wedge a \mathrel{R_2} y) \Leftrightarrow \exists_{a \in X}([x \equiv a \pmod{2}] \wedge [a \equiv y \pmod{3}])$
Is $\exists_{a \in X}([x \equiv a \pmod{2}] \wedge [a \equiv y \pmod{3}])$ the farthest we can go?