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The following fact is stated in my lecture notes: Let $f: \mathbb{R}_+ \to \mathbb{R}_+$ be an increasing and continuous function satisfying $f(0) = 0$. Then there exists a continuous real-valued martingale $M$ with quadratic covariation process $[M]$ given by f, i.e $[M] = f$. (For clarification: We define the quadratic covariation process of a continuous local martingale $M$ as the unique process , denoted by $[M]$, such that it starts in $0$, has locally finite variation and makes the process $M^2 - [M]$ a continuous local martingale.)

I am not sure how to construct such a martingale. I already tried the follwowing:

Given a continuous local martingale $M$ and a progressive process $V$ (satisfying some conditions), I know that the covariation process of the stochastic integral $V \cdot M$ is given by $$ [V \cdot M]_t = \int_0^t V^2_sd[M]_s $$ and this expression must somehow equal $f(t)$ for all $t$. Let us try Brownian motion as $M$. We get (since the covariation of brownian motion is just $t$): $$ [V \cdot B]_t = \int_0^tV^2_s ds. $$ So it seems that I can set $V_s := \sqrt{\frac{df}{dt}(s)}$ and get with $M:= V\cdot M$ $$ [M]_t = [V \cdot B]_t = \int_0^t (\sqrt{\frac{df}{dt}(s)})^2 ds = f(t) - f(0) = f(t), $$ as I wanted.

However, I cannot assume that $f$ is differentiable (or: the measure $\mu_f$ induced by $f$ does not necessarily satisfy $\mu_f << \lambda$). So my argument does not work.

After reading this, I tried to use the Lebesgue decomposition of the measure induced by $f$, i.e. decompose $f(t) = \int g(s) d\lambda(s) + h(s)$, where the integral represents the absolutely continuous part and $h$ the singular component. Using Brownian motion, I can deal with the integral part, but I do not know how to deal with the singular part. So, assuming that $f$ is purely singular (e.g. the Cantor function), I am nowhere.

I don't know where I can start to tackle the problem concerning the singular part of $f$ and I would be glad if somehow could hint me into the right direction.

Thanks in advance!

  • TL;DR. When you take a Brownian motion $B$ then the martingale $M_t=\int_0^t g(s),dB_s$ has the covariation $[M]_t=\int_0^tg^2(s),ds,.$ Now find $g$ such that this integral equals $f(t),.$ – Kurt G. Jan 10 '23 at 17:59
  • I think this is not possible, when $f$ is e.g. the cantor function, see here. The function is not absolutely continuous w.r.t. the Lebesgue measure and therefore cannot be represented as an integral w.r.t the Lebesgue measure. Or am I mistaken? – julian2000P Jan 10 '23 at 19:17
  • The quadratic (co)variation of a continuous martingale $M$ can also be seen as the unique increasing continuous process $A_t$ from the Doob-Meyer decomposition such that $M^2_t-A_t$ is a martingale. This rules out the Cantor function. – Kurt G. Jan 10 '23 at 19:24
  • Could you elaborate why this rules out the cantor function? The cantor function is an increasing continuous (deterministic) process? – julian2000P Jan 10 '23 at 19:34
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    Sorry I mixed up the Cantor function with the indicator function of the Cantor set. So you have a point regarding my first comment. However, if you take again a BM $B$ and a not necessarily absolutely continuous $A_t$ that satisfies all other requirements of the Doob-Meyer decomposition then $M_t=B_{A_t}$ has quadratic variation $A_t,.$ – Kurt G. Jan 10 '23 at 19:44
  • Thank you, using $M_t = B_{A_t}$ I was able to get the desired result. – julian2000P Jan 12 '23 at 14:52

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