Suppose you have a parametric curve $r(t) = (x(t),y(t))$. From my understanding, we typically require a smoothness condition that its derivative is not equal to the zero vector for all $t$ in $r(t)$'s domain.
Suppose we ignore that condition. Ignoring some potential uninteresting edge cases, it is easy to find two polynomials $x(t)$, $y(t)$ such that there exists a $c$ so that $c$ is a non-repeated root of $x'$ and $y'$. If we then define "the slope of the line tangent to the curve $r(t)$" as $m = \lim_{t\rightarrow c} \frac{y'(t)}{x'(t)}$ then this limit will exist and the equation of the tangent line can be written as $$y = m(x-x(c)) + y(c).$$
It seems to me that this is the "right" way to try to define a "tangent line" and you could relax the smoothness condition to allow the case when $(x'(c),y'(c)) = (0,0)$ but the limit of $m$ exists at $c$.
My question is then, what am I actually doing here when I apply this procedure? Is this definition of a tangent line reasonable and does this slope really tell me anything? I suppose as a follow up, is this equation of the tangent line unique and independent of the parameterization?
