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I am learning blowing up from An Invitation to Algebraic geometry (Karen E. Smith). In the chapter 7 (103- page) written that blowing up of affine space $\mathbb{A}^n$ along point $p$ is not affine variety. How I can prove it? I am trying to use the fact that : only global regular functions on a projective variety are constant functions. Could anyone help me to prove it?

Otabek
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  • You cannot use the fact thaty «the only global regular functions on a projective variety are constant functions» to prove that something is not an affine variety. You could use it to prove that something is not a projective variety by exhibiting on it a regular function which is not constant, of course, but it simply will not help you with your problem here. – Mariano Suárez-Álvarez Jan 23 '23 at 16:52
  • You could use another fact: that if $p$ and $q$ are two different points on an affine variety $X$ then there is a regular function $f$ on $X$ such that $f(p)\neq f(q)$. If you show that all regular functions on the blowup of the plane are constant on the fiber of the blown up point, then you will have proved that that blow up is not affine. – Mariano Suárez-Álvarez Jan 23 '23 at 16:55

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Let $X$ be the blow-up of $\mathbb{A}^n$ at a point $p$. Then $X$ admits a closed immersion $\mathbb{P}^{n-1}\to X$ with image $\varphi^{-1}(p)$. So $X$ can't be affine, because otherwise $\mathbb{P}^{n-1}$ would be affine as well, which it isn't for $n\geq 2$. But note that $\mathbb{P}^0$ is affine, and blowing up $\mathbb{A}^1$ at a point does nothing, so the blow-up remains affine.

Let us examine this more in detail: suppose for simplicity that $p=O$ is the origin. The blow-up $X$ of $\mathbb{A}^n$ at $O$ may be defined as the closed subset of $\mathbb{A}^n_{x_1,\ldots,x_n}\times\mathbb{P}^{n-1}_{y_1,\ldots,y_n}$ defined by the equations $x_iy_j=x_jy_i$ where $i,j$ run through $1,\ldots,n$. More formally, note that we can describe the closed subsets of $\mathbb{A}^n_{x_1,\ldots,x_n}\times\mathbb{P}^{n-1}_{y_1,\ldots,y_n}$ by ideals of $k[x_1,\ldots,x_n][y_1,\ldots,y_n]$ which are generated by polynomials homogeneous in $y_1,\ldots,y_n$ (e.g. the ideal $(y_1+x_1y_2)$). So with this description, $X$ is cut out by the ideal $I=(x_iy_j-x_jy_i\mid i,j\in\{1,\ldots,n\})$. Now $I$ is certainly contained in $J=(x_1,\ldots,x_n)$, and the set cut out by $J$ is precisely $\{O\}\times\mathbb{P}^{n-1}_{y_1,\ldots,y_n}\cong\mathbb{P}^{n-1}$. Hence $X$ contains the closed subset $\{O\}\times\mathbb{P}^{n-1}_{y_1,\ldots,y_n}$, so it can't be affine.

imtrying46
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