Why is convolution in the time domain equal to multiplication in the frequency domain? (intuitively, not mathematically)

Asked Jan 24 '23 at 09:24

Active Jan 24 '23 at 10:08

Viewed 96 times

I know the logic of how Fourier transforms work, and I know the logic of how convolution works, but I can't figure out why convolution in the time domain is equal to multiplication in the frequency domain. I am looking for a logical/intuitive answer, not a mathematical proof. Thanks in advance.

edited Jan 24 '23 at 10:08

Mauro ALLEGRANZA

94,169

asked Jan 24 '23 at 09:24

Riccardo Piana

1

This isn’t a complete answer to your question, but in the discrete case, this video gives some really nice intuition for what convolution is (and what it has to do with time vs frequency etc)
https://m.youtube.com/watch?v=KuXjwB4LzSA
– D Ford Jan 24 '23 at 09:45
1

Why the downvote? If it's because a great answer exists elsewhere then link it! If not then questions like this sometimes get brilliantly informative answers; I would upvote! – SBK Jan 24 '23 at 10:11
4

In general, ignore down votes: they make no sense and convey no useful information. – Mariano Suárez-Álvarez Jan 24 '23 at 10:13
THIS should answer your question. – Mark Viola Jan 24 '23 at 19:49
And THIS hopefully helps further. – Mark Viola Jan 24 '23 at 19:56

Why is convolution in the time domain equal to multiplication in the frequency domain? (intuitively, not mathematically)

0 Answers0