I'm trying to understand why in order to prove the claim:
For an invertible linear transformation $f\colon\mathbb{R}^n\to\mathbb{R}^n$ show that the induced map on $H_n(\mathbb{R}^n,\mathbb{R}^n-\{0\})\approx \tilde{H}_n(\mathbb{R}^n-\{0\})\approx\mathbb{Z}$ is $1$ or $-1$ according to whether the determinant of $f$ is positive or negative.
it follows by naturality that it suffices to prove the statement for:
$$f_*: H_{n-1}(\mathbb{R}^n-\{0\})\to H_{n-1}(\mathbb{R}^n-\{0\})$$
I'm familiar with the commutative diagrams in Hatcher's Algebraic Topology on pag. 127-128 but I'm not sure how this one fits in to those diagrams. I'm assuming the following one is the one I should be using somehow (?)
Any advice would be much appreciated.
(the claim that naturality suffices is from here)
