If $p_i$ is the $i^{th}$ prime number, let $\forall k \in \mathbb{N}, k>2, P_k := \prod\limits_{i = 2}^{k}p_i.$ Then, at least one of $(P_k + 2, P_k -2)$ is a prime number.
I tested it up to $k = 10$. Does it hold for all $k$, really? Is what I'm proposing nonsense? It's just an idea that came to my mind. I am new here.