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If $p_i$ is the $i^{th}$ prime number, let $\forall k \in \mathbb{N}, k>2, P_k := \prod\limits_{i = 2}^{k}p_i.$ Then, at least one of $(P_k + 2, P_k -2)$ is a prime number.

I tested it up to $k = 10$. Does it hold for all $k$, really? Is what I'm proposing nonsense? It's just an idea that came to my mind. I am new here.

1 Answers1

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The conjecture is false. For $k=14$, we get:

$ 3 \cdot 5 \cdot 7 \cdot 11 \cdot 13 \cdot 17 \cdot 19 \cdot 23 \cdot 29 \cdot 31 \cdot 37 \cdot 41 \cdot 43 = 6541380665835015 $

$ 6541380665835015 - 2 = 6541380665835013 = 431 \cdot 125887 \cdot 120562229 $

$ 6541380665835015 + 2 = 6541380665835017 = 613 \cdot 7841 \cdot 1360935349 $

lhf
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