I'm having difficulties in showing that, given the function $$f(x, y) = \begin{cases} 0 & y \leq 0 \qquad y \geq x^2 \\ 1 & 0 < y < x^2 \end{cases} $$
goes to zero when $(x, y) \to (0, 0)$ along any line for the origin, and then there does exist a curve passing though the origin such that $f(x, y) = 1$, except in the origin.
attempts
Since I have to study the straight lines for the origin, I though of restricting $y = mx$, then the function becomes defined by
$$ f(x, mx) = \begin{cases} 0 & mx \leq 0 \qquad mx \geq x^2 \\ 1 & 0 < mx < x^2 \end{cases} $$
The condition can be simplified, according if $m > 0$ or $m<0$ like for example if $m > 0$ I read in the first one: $0 \leq x \leq m$.
In any case, as $x\to 0$ I obtain $0 =0$ in the conditions.
What confuses me is how $f$ is defined. I also tried to "plot" it.
About the second point I thought for a logarithmic curve, since it's surely true that $\ln(x) < x^2$, but again it was just an intuition.
Perhaps this function is not even continuous at the origin...