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I was trying to prove the truth (avoiding Fubini) or falsehood of

Q: Let $f:A\to\mathbb{R}^m$ be a continuous function where the domain $A\subseteq\mathbb{R}^k$ is open or closed. Then, is it necessarily the case that the graph $\Gamma(f,A)=\{(x,f(x)):x\in A\}$ has Lebesgue measure $0$ (and, thus, is Lebesgue measurable)?

But I failed. The thing is: I know that, on this site, the case where $A$ is a rectangle has been asked many times. But what about this more general case? I know how to prove it when $A$ is a rectangle (i.e. of the form $A=\prod_{j=1}^k [a_j,b_j]$) but I am unable to generalize this particular case to the more general case (if it is true). I know that every open/closed set in $\mathbb{R}^n$ is the countable union of compact spaces so it would suffice to prove it on compact spaces which seem helpful since continuity on compact sets implies uniform continuity. However, the rectangle case can't be extended to the compact case since there exist compact sets that aren't the union of countably many rectangles such as the Cantor set. Is there a possible counterexample? I don't think so, but there might be one (?). Also: sorry if this question has already been asked here. I've searched as best as I could and, sadly, found nothing...

Note: I don’t think that it’s valid to prove the case where $A=\mathbb{R}^k$ and $f$ is a continuous function (which is pretty trivial) and consider every other case of this problem as a simple restriction that follows directly. That is because not every continuous function $f\in C(A,\mathbb{R}^m)$ is the restriction of a continuous function with $\mathbb{R}^k$ as a domain. For example, $f:\mathbb{R}\setminus\{0\}\to\mathbb{R}$ defined $f(x)=\frac{1}{x}$ is continuous but its domain can’t be extended so that it’s still continuous. Or, even worse, $f:\mathbb{R}\setminus\left(\frac{\pi}{2}+\pi\mathbb{Z}\right)\to\mathbb{R}$ defined as $f(x)=\tan(x)$ can’t be continuously extended either.

Any help would be highly appreciated! :)

K. Makabre
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  • If $A\subseteq B$, then $\Gamma(f,A) \subseteq \Gamma(f,B)$. We can write $\mathbb{R}^n$ as a countable union of compact cubes (with overlap zero sets). Thus, if you can show that the graph over a compact cube has measure zero, you get that all the graphs have measure zero. – Severin Schraven Feb 28 '23 at 01:56
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    Like $$ \Gamma(f,A) \subseteq \Gamma(f, \mathbb{R}^n) = \bigcup_{(k_1, \dots, k_n)\in \mathbb{Z}^n} \Gamma(f, \prod_{j=1}^n [k_j, k_j+1]),$$ and then $$ \lambda(\Gamma(f,A)) \leq \sum_{(k_1, \dots, k_n)\in \mathbb{Z}^n} \lambda(\Gamma(f, \prod_{j=1}^n [k_j, k_j+1])).$$ This works as we have countably many boxes and then we use uniform continuity to show that $$ \lambda(\Gamma(f, \prod_{j=1}^n [k_j, k_j+1])) =0$$ and conclude. – Severin Schraven Feb 28 '23 at 04:02
  • @SeverinSchraven Thanks! I thought about something like that but I’m not sure about something. If, for example, $f:\mathbb{R}\setminus\left(\frac{\pi}{2}+\pi\mathbb{Z}\right)\to\mathbb{R}$ is the function $f(x) = \tan(x)$ how can you extend its domain so that the function is still continuous? I’m pretty sure that this is impossible, isn’t it? I certainly would like to prove that the graph of this continuous function (and any other continuous function) has measure $0$. – K. Makabre Feb 28 '23 at 10:11
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    Well, that is because I thought you started from a function defined on all of $\mathbb{R}^n$. Anyhow for open sets this should still work using inner regularity of the Lebesgue measure. For closed sets there is even less of a problem. Intersect your closed set with boxes and do the argument (it's compact again and the exact form is irrelevant for the argument, only uniform continuity matters). – Severin Schraven Feb 28 '23 at 16:41
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    With the argument I gave first, it is enough to show that $\Gamma(f,A\cap B)$ is a null set for any box, i.e. wlog $A$ is bounded (and thus finite measure): $1.)$ By the inner regularity of the Lebesgue measure there exists a sequence of compact sets $(K_n)_n$ such that $K_n\subseteq A$ and $\lambda(A\setminus K_n)\rightarrow 0$. $2.)$ Show that $\Gamma(f, K_n)$ is a null set using uniform continuity. $3.)$ Show that if $N$ is a null set, then so is $\Gamma(f,N)$. $4.)$ Put everything together and conclude. – Severin Schraven Feb 28 '23 at 17:01
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    For point $3.)$, it might be useful to use $$ \lambda(\Gamma(f, N)) \leq \sum_{n=0}^\infty \lambda(\Gamma(f, N\cap { x \ : \ \vert f(x) \vert \in [n, n+1) })).$$ Furthermore, we have $$ \Gamma(f, N\cap { x \ : \ \vert f(x) \vert \in [n, n+1) }) \subseteq N \times [-n-1,n+1].$$ – Severin Schraven Feb 28 '23 at 17:44

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Ok, let's do this. Let $A\subseteq \mathbb{R}^k$ be Lebesgue measurable and $f: A \rightarrow \mathbb{R}^m$ continuous. Then the graph $\Gamma(f,A)$ of $f$ is a Lebesgue null set. There are a bunch of steps involved, let me break it down:

$A$ compact:

If $A$ is compact, then $f$ is uniformly continuous. Let $A\subseteq [-L,L]^k$. For every $\varepsilon>0$ there exists $N=N_\varepsilon$ such that

\begin{align*} \Gamma(f,A) &= \bigcup_{0\leq \ell_1, \dots, \ell_k \leq 2N-1} \Gamma(f, A \cap \prod_{j=1}^k [-L+\ell_j L/N, -L+(\ell_j+1)L/N]) \\ &\subseteq \bigcup_{0\leq \ell_1, \dots, \ell_k \leq 2N-1} \left(\prod_{j=1}^k [-L+\ell_j L/N, -L+(\ell_j+1)L/N] \right) \times Q(f(-L+\ell_j L/N),\varepsilon). \end{align*}

Here I used $Q(y,r)$ to denote a cube centered at $y$ with sidelength $2\varepsilon$. Thus, we get

$$ 0\leq \lambda(\Gamma(f,A)) \leq (2L)^k (2\varepsilon)^m. $$

Taking $\varepsilon \rightarrow 0^+$ yields

$$ \lambda(\Gamma(f,A))=0. $$

$A$ is bounded:

By the inner regularity of the Lebesgue measure, there exists a sequence of compact sets $(K_n)_{n\in \mathbb{N}}$ such that $K_n \subseteq A$ and such that $\lim_{n\rightarrow \infty} \lambda(A\setminus K_n) =0$ (here I am using that $A$ has finite measure). If $A$ is open or closed, you can construct such compact sets by hand (well, if $A$ is closed and bounded, it is already compact, no need for a sequence. For open sets, you can consider sets that have smaller and smaller distance to the boundary of the set, i.e. $K_n = \{ x\in A \ : \ \text{dist}(x,\partial A) \geq 1/(n+1) \}$).

Now, we define $N= A \setminus \bigcup_{n\in \mathbb{N}} K_n$. Then we have

$$ \lambda(\Gamma(f,A)) \leq \lambda(\Gamma(f,N)) + \sum_{n\in \mathbb{N}} \lambda(\Gamma(f,K_n)) = \lambda(\Gamma(f,N)), $$

because $\lambda(\Gamma(f,K_n))=0$ by the previous case (as $K_n$ is compact). Hence, we need to show that $\lambda(\Gamma(f,N))=0$. For this we define $F_n = \{ x\in A \ : \ \vert f(x) \vert \in [n,n+1) \}$ and compute

\begin{align*} \lambda(\Gamma(f,N)) \leq \sum_{n\in \mathbb{N}} \lambda(\Gamma(f,N\cap F_n)) \leq \sum_{n\in \mathbb{N}} \lambda(N\times [-n-1, n+1]^m) =0. \end{align*}

Here we used that $\lambda(N)=0$ and hence $$\lambda(N \times [-n-1, n+1]^m) = \lambda(N) \lambda([-n-1, n+1]^m)=(2n+2)^m \lambda(N) =0.$$

General $A$:

We have

$$ \lambda(\Gamma(f,A)) \leq \sum_{(\ell_1, \dots, \ell_k)\in \mathbb{Z}^k} \lambda\left(\Gamma\left(f,A\cap \prod_{j=1}^k [\ell_j, \ell_j+1] \right)\right) = 0, $$

where we used that $A \cap \prod_{j=1}^k [\ell_j, \ell_j+1]$ is bounded and hence

$$\lambda\left(\Gamma\left(f,A\cap \prod_{j=1}^k [\ell_j, \ell_j+1] \right)\right) = 0. $$

  • Awesome! Thanks a lot! I didn't know how to prove it when the domain $A\subseteq\mathbb{R}^k$ was a compact set. But I knew that this case would imply that, if the domain $A$ were a countable union of compact sets, then the theorem would also hold since, if $A=\bigcup_{j\in\mathbb{N}} K_j$ is a countable union of compact sets, $\Gamma(f,A)=\bigcup_{j\in\mathbb{N}} \Gamma(f,K_j)$ would have measure zero as it is a countable union of measure zero sets. Hence, since every open/closed set is the countable union of compact sets, the general result would follow as well. Isn't it? – K. Makabre Feb 28 '23 at 21:39
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    Yes, sure. But I thought if I go through the pain of writing this down, I could directly do it for a general measurable set. I also gave the construction of the countable union of compact sets for open sets in the answer. – Severin Schraven Feb 28 '23 at 22:14