From the theorem of open simply-connected regions we know that if $\frac{\partial Q}{\partial x}=\frac{\partial P}{\partial y}$ then $\vec F(x,y)=P\vec i+Q\vec j$ is conservative, well I have two examples related to this that I'm not understanding.
Example 1:
$\vec F(x,y)=\left(\frac{x}{(x^2+y^2)^{3/2}},\frac{y}{(x^2+y^2)^{3/2}}\right)$
$\text{Domain of $\vec F(x,y)$:} \mathbb{R}^2-\{(0,0)\}$
$\text{potential:} f(x,y)=\frac{-1}{\sqrt{x^2+y^2}}$
$\text{Domain of $\vec f(x,y)$:} \mathbb{R}^2-\{(0,0)\}$
Example 2:
$\vec F(x,y)=\left(-\frac{y}{(4x^2+y^2)},\frac{x}{(4x^2+y^2)}\right)$
$\text{Domain of $\vec F(x,y)$:} \mathbb{R}^2-\{(0,0)\}$
$\text{potential:} f(x,y)=\frac{\tan^{-1}\left(\frac{y}{2x}\right)}{2}$
$\text{Domain of $\vec f(x,y)$:} \{(x,y), x\neq 0\}$
The argument for the example 1 one being a conservative field it's because the function of the field has the same domain of the potential function, and the argument for the second example not being a conservative field it's because the domain of the potential function is greater than the domain of the field and because it's line integral along a closed curve isn't zero, but if we didn't used this arguments, based on the theorem above why wouldn't both fields not be conservative, because they have restrictions on their domain so they have a "hole" on the region and wouldn't they fail to be open and simply-connected?