1

The following Theorem I have thought for a long time. I feel like there seems to be no simple solution for it. Does anyone have any ideas or hints for this?

Let $H$ be a previsible process. $X$ be a local martingale. Suppose $H$ is integrable with respect to $X$. If $H\cdot X$ is bounded below by a constant, then $H\cdot X$ is a local martingale.

If $H$ is locally bounded, then $H\cdot X$ is certainly a local martingale. So the theorem basically deals with the case $H$ is not locally bounded. It is pretty significant, since admissible financing strategies requires the payoff to be bounded below. With this it basically saying the payoff $H\cdot X$ is a local martingale.

EDIT:

Definition of integrability for local martingale is

$H$ integrable w.r.t $X$ (when $X$ is a local martingale) means there exists a stopping time sequence $T_n\rightarrow\infty$, $\mathbb{E}\left(\int H^2 \ d[X^{T_n-}, X^{T_n-}]\right)<\infty$. (This is the definition from Protter's Stochastic differential equation textbook, integrable in $T_n-$ sense).

Proof

One possible proof I can think of(after extracting several proof methods from several theorems):

First, $H\cdot X$ is a $\sigma$-martingale since the integrator $X$ is a local martingale. WLOG, assume $H\geq 0$.

Let $$A=\sum_{s\leq t}1_{(|\Delta X|>1 \ \text{or} \ |\Delta (H\cdot X)|>1)}\Delta X$$ Since $X, H\cdot X$ are cadlag (which are regular), $A$ is of finite variation. And further we by stopping with $Var(A)\geq n$, $A$ is locally integrable. Take $N_2 = A-A^p$ ($A^p$ is the compensator, so $N_2$ is a local martingale). Take $N_1 = X-N_2$. We show $H\cdot N_1, H\cdot N_2$ are both local martingales.

Verify integrability: By the definition of $A$, the Stieljies integral $\int H\ dA$ exists. Since $H$ is non-negative, by compensator's property and suitable stopping $T_n-$, $H$ is integrable w.r.t. $A^p$ ($\mathbb{E}(H\cdot A) = \mathbb{E}(H\cdot A^p)$. By stopping $T_n-$ we can make these expectation finite). Vector space structure ensures $H$ integrable w.r.t. to $N_2$ and hence $N_1$ (in $T_n-$ sense).

We show $H\cdot N_1$ is a local martingale. Property of compensator: $^p(\Delta A) = \Delta (A^p)$ ($^p X$ is the predictable prejection of $X$). Define \begin{align*} Y = 1_{(|\Delta X|\leq 1 \ \text{and} \ |\Delta (H\cdot X)|\leq 1)}\Delta X \end{align*} Then $^p (\Delta A) = - ^p Y$ (use the fact, when $X$ is a local martingale, $^p (\Delta X) = 0$.) \begin{align*} \Delta N_1 &= \Delta X - \Delta A + \Delta (A^p)\\ &= Y - ^p Y \end{align*} since $|Y|\leq 1$, $|\Delta N_1|\leq 2$ (predictive projection can be written as conditional expectation of the original). This shows that $N_1$ has bounded jumps. Similar argument shows $|H\Delta N_1|\leq 2$. By suitable stopping, we can assume $N_1$ is square integrable martingale with limit in $L^2$. Define $H_n$ as $H 1_{|H|\leq n}$. Because $|H\Delta X|\leq 2$, the integrabilty of $H$ can be extended from $T-$ to $T$ for any stopping time $T$. Thus, we can assume $H$ is integrable w.r.t. $N_1$ in $\mathcal{H}^2$ sense (i.e. not in stopping $T_n-$ sense).

By the definition of Stochastic integral, $H\cdot N_1$ is the limit of $H_n\cdot N_1$ in $\mathcal{H}^2$, this shows $H\cdot N_1$ is a square integrable martingale.

Next, we show $H\cdot N_2$ is a local martingale. Recall the notation $H_n=H 1_{(|H|\leq n)}$. $H_n\cdot N_2$ are local martingales. By stopping $T_n = \inf\{t, H\cdot X\geq n\}$, and $H\cdot X$ is bounded below, \begin{align*} -c \leq \Delta (H\cdot X) = H \Delta X \end{align*} where $-c$ is the lower bounds for $H\cdot X$. By the definition of $N_1,N_2$, we can get $H\Delta N_2\geq -c-2$. This shows $(H\Delta N_2)^-\leq c+2$ where $(\cdot )^-$ denote the negative parts of a function. Clearly, $(H_n\Delta N_2)^-\leq c+2$.

By stopping, we assume they are $N_2$ are integrable process (i.e. $\mathbb{E}(\int_0^\infty d|N_2|)<\infty$). $H_n\cdot N_2$ are local martingale with \begin{align*} \mathbb{E}\sup|H_n\cdot N_2|\leq n\mathbb{E}\left(\int_0^\infty d|N_2|\right)<\infty \end{align*} This shows $H_n\cdot N_2$ are true martingales.

This implies $\mathbb{E}(H_n\cdot N_2)^+ = \mathbb{E}(H_n\cdot N_2)^-$. By stopping on $T = \inf\{t, \int_0^t |H_t| d|N_2|\geq c\}$, we can bound (LHS is a Stieljies integral) \begin{align*} (H_n\cdot N_2)_T^- \leq \int_0^{T-}|H_t|d|N_2| + (H_n\Delta X)^- \leq 2c+2 \end{align*} Consequently \begin{align*} \mathbb{E}|H_n\cdot N_2|_T<4c+4 \end{align*} Fatou's Lemma shows \begin{align*} \mathbb{E}|H\cdot N_2|_T<4c+4 \end{align*} Next, \begin{align*} |H_n\cdot N_2|_T &\leq |H_n\cdot N_2|_{T-}+|H_n\Delta N_2|_T \\ &\leq 2\int_0^{T-}|H|d|N_2| + |H\cdot N_2|_T \end{align*} The RHS has finite expectation.

By martingale property of $H_n\cdot N_2$ \begin{align*} \mathbb{E}[(H_n\cdot N_2)_T|\mathcal{F}_t] = (H_n\cdot N_2)_{T\land t} \end{align*} Apply $L_1$ convergence on both sides obtain the result.

Zorualyh
  • 792
  • 3
  • 8
  • 2
    You may want to define what it means that $H$ is integrable w.r.t. $X,.$ Afaik, $H\cdot X$ is a local martingale whenever it is possible to define that integral (see Dothan, Prices in Financial Markets). What else should $H\cdot X$ be? – Kurt G. Mar 18 '23 at 05:41
  • @KurtG. Thanks for comment. I added the definition. Finally, I formulate a formal proof, which comes from many theorems. It is pretty lengthy. – Zorualyh Mar 18 '23 at 19:27
  • 1
    The definition from Protter looks familiar to me. Before I read any lengthy proofs: What is ist that you prove ? Protter does not mention that $H\cdot X$ is a local martingale ? If not please consult a nother book. This looks fairly standard. For the life of me I don't understand what this has to do with the boundedness of $H\cdot X$ from below. In the theory of stochastic integration it never matters if you replace $H$ by $-H$ or $X$ by $-X,.$ – Kurt G. Mar 18 '23 at 19:36
  • @KurtG. Actually it is $H\cdot X$ is bounded below, but not necessarily either $H$ or $X$. I have checked that Theorem 29 Ch4 on Protter states stochastic integral of locally bounded $H$ with local martingale $X$ is a local martingale. For general $H$, this statement is not true. But if $H\cdot X$ is bounded below, then it is still true. I guess this is a bit like monotone convergence sequence with lower bound? – Zorualyh Mar 18 '23 at 19:43
  • @KurtG. So I think the reason for this phenomenon to be true is because stochastic integral behave kinds of symmetric. If it is bounded below, then somehow it is bounded from above by some weird way? – Zorualyh Mar 18 '23 at 20:04
  • 1
    I do unfortunately not have Protter's book but I remember that he developed things in a very general way. Dothan's integrands $H$ are probably a bit more restrictive which means that all of Dothan's integrals $H\cdot X$ are local martingales. If Protter has a theorem that implies $H\cdot X$ is a local martingale for this being bounded from below I'd expect the symmetrical statement to be true. One last thing (very important): stochastic integrals have nothing to do with monotone convergence that we know from Lebesgue integration. – Kurt G. Mar 18 '23 at 20:11

1 Answers1

1

You can check the book Seminaire de Probabilites by Marzia De Donno & Maurizio Pratelli the part On a Lemma by Ansel and Stricker page 412, corallary 2. Is is the exact question you are asking. The proof is pretty simple but uses the theorem on page 411.

Omer
  • 374