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How to prove that $$\sum_{k=1}^\infty\frac1{k^2(k+1)}=\frac{\pi^2}6-1$$? I could do this by partial fractions and setting the summand equal to $$\frac{Ak(k+1)+B(k+1)+Ck^2}{k(k+1)}=\frac1{k(k+1)}$$But I want to see solutions other than that one.

Kamal Saleh
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1 Answers1

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Compute the partial sum$$S_n=\sum_{k=1}^n\frac1{k^2(k+1)}=\sum_{k=1}^n\frac1{k^2}+\sum_{k=1}^n\frac1{k+1}-\sum_{k=1}^n\frac1{k}$$ Using harmonic numbers $$S_n=H_n^{(2)}+\left(H_{n+1}-1\right)-H_n$$ Using their asymptotics $$S_n=\left(\frac{\pi ^2}{6}-1\right)-\frac{1}{2 n^2}+\frac{5}{6 n^3}+O\left(\frac{1}{n^4}\right)$$ which shows a relative error smaller than $0.001$% as soon as $n>19$

  • I wonder why the OP accepted that solution, after having asked for a solution "other than" "do this by partial fractions". Anyway, it was a (multi!)duplicate. https://approach0.xyz/search/?q=OR%20content%3A%24%5Csum_%7Bk%3D1%7D%5E%5Cinfty%5Cfrac1%7Bk%5E2(k%2B1)%7D%24&p=1 – Anne Bauval Mar 31 '23 at 17:06