I realize that the equality from the title is wrong, but I do not understand why. A correct equality would be $\frac{\cos(\alpha) + i\sin(\alpha)}{\cos(\alpha)-i\sin(\alpha)} = \cos(2\alpha)+i\sin(2\alpha)$ by multiplying with the conjugate of the denominator (i.e. the numerator). However, I wanted to try another way too: $$\frac{\cos(\alpha) + i\sin(\alpha)}{\cos(\alpha)-i\sin(\alpha)} = \frac{\cos(\alpha) + i\sin(\alpha)}{\cos(\alpha) + i\sin(-\alpha)} = (\cos(\alpha) + i\sin(\alpha))(\cos(\alpha) + i\sin(-\alpha))^{-1} \\[4ex] \overset{\text{Applying de Moivre's formula}}{============} (\cos(\alpha) + i\sin(\alpha))(\cos(-\alpha) + i\sin(\alpha))= \cos(\alpha - \alpha) + i\sin(\alpha + \alpha) = 1 + i\sin(2\alpha)$$
I don't think I made any mistakes or at least I'm not able at all to spot them, so what exactly is wrong with my attempt? Any help is greatly appreciated!