I'm trying to start learning about manifold through Loring Tu's book. However, the first result has me somewhat confused. I was for the most part able to follow Lemma 1.4 which proves Taylor's theorem with remainder. However, I am confused as to how Tu was able to easily conclude $g_i(x)$ is in $C^\infty(U)$. Looking at its definition (see picture), it isn't clear to me why this is immediate true. The outer integral "blocking" the smooth function $f$ is what concerns me.
I am convinced from equation 1.1 $$ f(x) = f(p) + \sum (x^i - p^i) g_i(x) $$ that the mixed partials of $g_i(x)$ must exist otherwise $f$ would not be in $C^\infty$. But, why must these mixed partials be continuous over $U$? After all, aren't there examples of partials existing at a point while not being continuous?
