In a proof that I am studying, the author makes a substitution/ change of variables.
and claims $\mathbb C [x,y]= \mathbb C[x+iy,x-iy]$.
But how can one rigorously show this? I have a few problems with it.
First, is it really the case that these rings are equal, or shouldn't we be more careful and say isomorphic?
Second, when we define a polynomial ring, we don't many any mention of distributing over a variable in the definition. so if we have a variable of the form $x+iy$ there is nothing in our axioms that says we can take an element of the ring, call it $r$, and distribute it over the variable to get $r(x+iy)=rx+iry$.
What is really going on here?
Also, when we define a polynomial ring with some unknowns, we don't specify where the unknowns "live." The unknowns in the ring $\mathbb C[x,y]$ could be anything, but in the ring $\mathbb C[x+iy,x-iy]$ it is almost like we are forcing them to be complex numbers?