The problem is as follows: $f$ is differentiable at $x$. Show that $\lim_{h\rightarrow 0}\frac{f^2(x+3h)-f^2(x-h)}{h}$ exists and find its value. Note that $f^2(a)$ just means $[f(a)]^2$.
Well, basis calculus tells me the answer should be $2f'(x)f(x)$.
Here's my attempt: using the fact that $a^2-b^2=(a-b)(a+b)$, I get that the fraction turns into $\frac{f(x+3h)-f(x-h)}{h}\cdot (f(x+3h)+f(x-h))$. I know since $f$ is differentiable at $x$, it's continuous in a neighborhood around $x$, and so the right product just turns into $2f(x)$ as $h\rightarrow 0$. The left product is basically $f'(x)$, but I'm worried abound $f$ being evaluated at $x+3h$ and $x-h$, rather than strictly $x+h$ and $x$. How do I deal with this? Or can I just say that the left product is $f'(x)$ has $h\rightarrow 0$? Thanks.