Consider the following function: \begin{equation*} f(x, y) = \begin{cases} \frac{x^{2}\sin(y^2)}{x^{2} + y^{4}} & (x, y) \neq (0, 0) \\ 0 & (x, y) = (0, 0) \end{cases} \end{equation*}
Regarding differentiability at $(0, 0)$: I have shown that the directional derivatives $(D_{u}f)(0, 0)$ exist and equal zero for all $u = (u_{1}, u_{2}) \in \mathbb{R}^{2} \setminus \{(0,0)\}$ where $u_{1} \neq 0$. From this I argued that the function is not differentiable. My reasoning for this is that differentiability implies the existence of all directional derivatives, and so the contrapositive would hold, but I am not sure of this argument. Is this correct?
Regarding continuous differentiability: I have tried showing continuity of the partial derivatives of $f$ but to no avail. I was wondering if there is another way to determine whether $f$ is continuously differentiable. Many thanks in advance.