I want to prove that $n>kp$ implies $W^{k,p}(\mathbb R^n)\subset L^q(\mathbb R^n)$ continuously for all $p\leq q\leq \infty$.
Idea of proof:
According to Wikipedia, if $n>kp$ then $W^{k,p}(\mathbb R^n)\subset C^{r,\alpha}(\mathbb R^n)$ for some $\alpha,r$ such that $\frac{1}{p}-\frac{k}{n}=-\frac{r+\alpha}{n}$ with $\alpha\in (0,1)$.
Can we say that if $f\in W^{k,p}(\mathbb R^n)\subset C^{r,\alpha}(\mathbb R^n)$ then $f\in L^\infty(\mathbb R^n)$? That is, do we have $\lVert f\rVert_{L^\infty(\mathbb R^n)}\leq c\lVert f\rVert_{C^{r,\alpha}(\mathbb R^n)}$ for some $c>0$?
Then we could apply Holder's inequality to prove that $\lVert f\rVert_{L^q(\mathbb R^n)}\leq \lVert f\rVert^\theta_{L^p(\mathbb R^n)}\lVert f\rVert_{L^\infty(\mathbb R^n)}^{1-\theta}\leq C\lVert f\rVert_{W^{k,p}(\mathbb R^n)}^\theta c\lVert f\rVert_{C^{r,\alpha}(\mathbb R^n)}^{1-\theta}\leq cC\lVert f\rVert_{W^{k,p}(\mathbb R^n)}$.