On several instances, Hartshorne states that certain questions are "local". What is the reasoning behind it? Some instances in the text by Hartshorne, algebraic geometry, occur on p. 114 f., proof of proposition 5.7, or proof of proposition 5.8.
In section 5 chapter 2, quasi-coherent sheaves are discussed. Quasi-coherent sheaves deal with $\mathcal{O}_X$-modules, which on some open covers of $X$ are isomorphic to a sheaf associated to a $A_i$-module for some appropriately chosen ring $A_i$. The elements of the open covers each equal the spectrum of a ring $A_i$.
Proposition 5.7 deals with a scheme $X$, which is not necessarily affine, and states that kernels, cokernels and images of morphisms between quasi-coherent sheaves $\mathcal{F}$ and $\mathcal{G}$ on $X$ are quasi-coherent. Hartshorne simply states in the proof that by localness of the question, affineness can be assumed. I interpret it in the way that quasi-coherence requires that the restriction of a sheaf of modules to each element of some open covering is isomorphic to $\widetilde{M_{i}}$ where $M_{i}$ is a module over a ring $A_{i}$ with $\text{Spec}(A_{i})=U_{i}$.
An interpretation of the Hartshorne's explanation is that the property in question can be checked on the stalks. By proposition 1.1., p. 63 a morphism of sheaves on $X$ is an isomorphism if and only if the induced map on the stalks at $P$ is an isomorphism for each element $P$ of the topological space $X$. Certainly for an affine structure, the stalk of a sheaf of $A_i$-modules at $\mathfrak{p}$ is isomorphic to the localisation $(\widetilde{M_i})_{\mathfrak{p}}$, where $M_i\cong \Gamma(\text{Spec}(A_i),\widetilde{M_i})$ (proposition 5.1 (b) and (d)). An alternative interpretation might be that localness refers to the open covers $\{U_i\}_i$, but I am sightly doubtful about the latter interpretation.
In part (a) of proposition 5.8, the assumption of quasi-coherence of $\mathcal{G}$ is a local property on $X$ and $Y$. Also the claim regarding $f^{*} \mathcal{G}$ relates to quasi-coherence. I wonder why in proposition 5.8 part (c) it is claimed in the proof that the question is local on $Y$ only.
Especially part (c) of proposition 5.8 is unclear to me, but the other occurences of the approach "the question is local, so affineness can be assumed", remain unclear to me, as well.