Consider a function $f: X\rightarrow \bar{\mathbb{R}}$ where $X$ is a convex set and is not a singleton. Suppose $f$ is strictly convex. Does it imply that $f$ is properly convex?
My tentative proof is as follows.
Suppose there exists $x^*\in X$ and $x^{**} \in X$ such that $f\left(x^*\right)=-\infty$ and $f\left(x^{**}\right)=+\infty$. Then it violates the notion that $f$ is strictly convex because the sum of $+\infty$ and $-\infty$ is not well-defined. So the assumption is invalid.
Then suppose there exists $x^*\in X$ and $x^{**}\in X$ such that $f\left(x^*\right)=-\infty$ and $f\left(x^{**}\right)<+\infty$. Then for any $\lambda \in \left(0,1\right)$, it is impossible that $f\left(\alpha x^*+\left(1-\alpha\right)x^{**}\right)<\alpha f\left(x^*\right)+\left(1-\alpha\right)f\left(x^{**}\right)=-\infty$. So the assumption is invalid.
Combining the above two results, there does not exist $x^*$ such that $f\left(x^*\right)=-\infty$.
Then suppose $f\left(x\right)=+\infty$ for all $x \in X$. Then take $x^*, x^{**} \in X$ and $\alpha \in \left(0,1\right)$. $f\left(\alpha x^*+\left(1-\alpha\right)x^{**}\right)=+\infty$ contradicts the strict convexity. So the assumption is invalid.
In sum, $f$ is properly convex.