I found a proof for $\left( \lim\limits_{x\rightarrow 0} {\sin(x) \over x} \right)$ using Euler reflection formula
I would like to ask if this proof can be strong mathematical proof?
so let me start by Euler reflection formula.
$${\pi \over {\sin(\pi a)} } = \Gamma (a)\Gamma (1-a)$$ where $a\notin \mathbb{Z}$
let $x = \pi a \Rightarrow a = {x \over \pi}$
So the formula can be written as:
$$\sin(x) = {\pi \over {\Gamma\left({x \over \pi}\right) \Gamma\left(1 - {x \over \pi}\right)}}$$ where ${x \over \pi}\notin \mathbb{Z}$
Thus, we have.
$$ \lim_{x \rightarrow 0}{\sin(x) \over x} = \lim_{x \rightarrow 0}{1 \over {{x \over \pi}\Gamma\left({x \over \pi}\right) \Gamma\left(1 - {x \over \pi}\right)}}$$
$$= \lim_{x \rightarrow 0}{1 \over {\Gamma\left({{x \over \pi} + 1}\right) \Gamma\left(1 - {x \over \pi}\right)}}$$
$$ = {1 \over {\Gamma({0 + 1}) \Gamma(1 - 0)}} = {1 \over {\Gamma({1})^2}} = 1$$