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I'm trying to understand this strange exercise in complex analysis:

Let $f : D → \mathbb{C}$ be analytic and $|f(z)| < 1$ for all $z \in D$, and suppose that $f$ has two distinct fixed points $a, b \in D$. Set $T_\alpha(z) := (z − \alpha)/(1 − \bar{\alpha}z)$. By considering the function $T_\alpha \circ f \circ T_{−\alpha}$ with an appropriate $\alpha \in D$, show that $f(z) = z$ for all $z$ in $D$.

What is $T_\alpha$ doing here? Can I accomplish anything by taking that function into consideration? And how can I show that $f$ is the identity map. If I apply Schwarz lemma somehow, I can probably not show anything more than that $f$ is a rotation map, or in other words that $f(z) = \lambda z$ where the absolute value of $\lambda$ is 1.

RobPratt
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  • For that last part: thanks to $f$ having two fixed points, are you sure you do not know how to conclude that $\forall z \in D,, f(z) = \lambda z$ implies $\lambda = 1$? – Bruno B May 24 '23 at 17:36
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    This has been asked and answered before: https://math.stackexchange.com/q/801570/42969, https://math.stackexchange.com/q/271838/42969, https://math.stackexchange.com/q/947910/42969, https://math.stackexchange.com/q/674423/42969 – all found with this search – Martin R May 24 '23 at 17:38

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