The pigeonhole principle seems self-evident, most people would accept it without evidence, but I wonder if we wanted to prove it, would we have to use the excluded middle principle? I would be grateful to provide a proof with or without the excluded middle principle, but I am curious as to which proof does not use the excluded middle principle.
Asked
Active
Viewed 69 times
1
-
2can you state the principle? – emesupap May 25 '23 at 04:21
-
Pigeonhole principle – Mauro ALLEGRANZA May 25 '23 at 05:38
-
1Are you talking about the finite version? Which definition of finite are you using? Note that there are no "canonical" definition of a set being finite without excluded middle. – Trebor May 25 '23 at 05:52