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Given $m>0$, what is the probability that a one-dimensional Wiener process $W$ will satisfy

$$\left|W_t\right|\leq mt$$

at all times during the period $t \in [0,1]$?

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    Zero, since the local modulus of continuity of Brownian motion at $t\to0$ is $\sim\sqrt{2t\log\log1/t}$, which is $\gg t$. – Did Aug 18 '13 at 22:42

1 Answers1

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The probability is zero, since the local modulus of continuity of Brownian motion when $t\to0$ is $\sim\sqrt{2t\log\log1/t}$, which is $\gg t$.

Did
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