This is the extension of my previous question. Let $A= \sum_{x_1=0}^m \sum _{x_2=0}^m \cdots \sum_{x_n=0}^m \min_r(x_1, x_2,.., x_n)$ where $\min_r$ is the $r^{th}$ minimum of $(x_1, x_2,.., x_n)$. For example if $x_1\leq x_2 \leq \cdots x_r \leq \cdots $ then $\min_r(x_1, \ldots, x_n)=x_r.$
Now let $B =\sum_{k=0}^m n \binom{n-1}{r-1}k^{r-1}(m-k)^{n-r}k.$ Is it true $\frac{A}{B} \rightarrow 1$ as $m $ approaches to infinity?
For each $k$, we need $\{y_1,\ldots, y_{r-1}, y_n\}=\{x_1, \ldots, x_n\}$ such that $y_1 \leq y_2 \ldots \leq y_{r-1}\leq k \leq y_r\ldots \leq y_n$.
Now choice of $y_1 \leq y_2 \ldots \leq y_{r-1}$ is $k^{r-1}$ and for $y_{r+1},\ldots y_n$ is $(m-k)^{n-r}$. For each such choice we add $k$.
Am I missing anything?