I was wondering if my proof sufficiently answers this question.
A function $f: \mathbb{R} \rightarrow \mathbb{R}$ is defined by $f(x) = 2x^3+3x^2-4.$ Find the range of $f$. Is $f$ one-to-one (injective)? Is $f$ onto (surjective)? Is $f$ a bijection? Give reasons for all your answers.
My solution:
Range = All real $x$. (This is obvious - but what reason could I give for this?)
$f$ is not injective. For an f to be injective, for every $y \in \mathbb{R}$ (codomain of $f$), there must be at most one $x \in \mathbb{R}$ (domain of $f$) such that $y = f(x)$. [Definition of injection].
As $f(-\frac{3}{2}) = f(0) = -4$ and $-\frac{3}{2} \neq 0$, for a $y \in \mathbb{R}$ (codomain) there exists two different $x \in \mathbb{R}$ (domain). Hence $f$ is not injective.
I just guessed the values, surely there must be another way?
Clearly $f$ is continuous (It is obvious but what reason can I give?). Hence for every $y \in \mathbb{R}$ (codomain), there is at least one $x \in \mathbb{R}$ (domain) such that $y=f(x)$. [How can I better word this?]
Can I now automatically say that since $f$ is not injective then $f$ is therefore not a bijection?
Feel free to comment on anything that can improve my reasoning skills. Thanks!