As said in a comment, the statement is to be found in Bourbaki's volume on Lie Groups and Algebras (ch. VII § 2 no.1, cor. 2 to prop. 4), but for the non-trivial part of the proof, it refers to earlier propositions which refer to earlier corollaries which rely on a theorem resting on a lemma ...
I would like to see a more direct proof, but here is the idea I distilled out of that. Maybe one really needs the following machinery, because it is what Cartan subalgebras are ultimately for: to decompose the Lie algebra into (generalized) weight spaces.
Definition: For a subalgebra $\mathfrak h \subset g$, and any linear form $\lambda \in \mathfrak h^*$, let $$g^\lambda(\mathfrak h) :=\{ x \in g: \text{ for all } h \in \mathfrak h \text{ there is } n\in \mathbb N \text{ such that } (ad(h)-\lambda(h) \cdot id)^n (x) = 0\}$$
be the generalized weight space to the weight $\lambda$. (Note that in the theory of semsimple Lie algebras, one looks at the more straightforward weight spaces $g_\lambda(\mathfrak h) :=\{ x \in g: \text{ for all } h \in \mathfrak h, (ad(h)-\lambda(h) \cdot id) (x) = 0\}$.)
Fact 1: If $\mathfrak h$ is nilpotent, then $\mathfrak g$ is the full sum of its generalized weight spaces i.e.
$$ g = \bigoplus_{\lambda \in \mathfrak h^*} g^\lambda(\mathfrak h).$$
This is a generalization of the well known theorem that commuting endomorphisms are simultaneously diagonalizable. Nilpotency guarantees something Bourbaki calls "almost commutativity", which in turn guarantees this "simultaneous trigonalizability".
Fact 2: If $\mathfrak h$ is nilpotent, then it is self-normalizing if and only if $\mathfrak h = g^0(\mathfrak h)$. (This is rather easy to see.)
Now the proof goes like this: If one has a map between things which have a full decomposition as in Fact 1, and the map respects these decompositions (which is trivially true in our application by it being a Lie algebra homomorphism), then that map can only be surjective if its restriction to each weight space is surjective. In particular in our case, and for $\lambda = 0$, we can conclude
$$ \overline{\mathfrak h} = \overline{g^0(\mathfrak h)} = \overline{g}^0 (\overline{\mathfrak h}) $$
which by Fact 2 tells us $\overline{\mathfrak h}$ is self-normalizing in $\overline{g}$.