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I know similar questions have already been asked on MathSE

However, I need more specific information: I need to know which inequalities can be used in Math Olympiads without needing to be proved beforehand. I've read for example that "the tangent trick" must be proved to be used. The AM-GM inequality can instead be used without proof. Could I have a list of these inequalities that can be used in Math Olympiads?

I thank everyone for their availability, and I apologize for the lack of information. I'm a first year student and therefore I'm not very informed.

IraeVid
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StCS
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  • Please edit the question to limit it to a specific problem with enough detail to identify an adequate answer. – Community Jun 10 '23 at 07:38

1 Answers1

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Typically, a "Theorem", "Lemma", "Inequality" or "Postulate" can be used directly. A common/obvious formula can also be used directly.

For example: Fermat's Little Theorem, Euler's Lemma, Hölder's Inequality or Bertrand's Postulate or the fact that ${n\choose k}=\frac{n!}{n! (n-k)!}$. These can be used directly. Other things like the Law of Sines are considered to be "Theorems", so they can be used directly as well.

However, others like "The Tangent Trick" (I have actually never heard of this), "Euler Line", and "Euler's Product Formula". The first 2 are not considered "Formal Theorems" and the last one is not a common/obvious formula, so they must be proved beforehand.

Another case is the case of "Trivialising the Question". Suppose a question says:

Prove that for all nonnegative reals $a_1, a_2, a_3, \cdots, a_n$, $\frac{1}{n}(a_1+a_2+a_3+\cdots+a_n)\geq (a_1 a_2 a_3 \cdots a_n)^{\frac{1}{n}}$.

This is clearly just the AM-GM Inequality. In this case, you can't just say "oh cos AM-GM, so Q.E.D." (this trivialises the question). If the question is asking you to prove the AM-GM Inequality (or whatever theorem), you have to prove it!

To conclude, a "Theorem", "Lemma", "Inequality" or "Postulate" or a common/obvious formula can be used directly. Those not considered as "Formal Theorems" or not a common/obvious formula must be proved. Hope this helps!

Edit 1: This is not specific to Inequality, but I just wanted to add more details. I am not very sure about the various properties of stuff in Geometry. What I do is that for the most basic properties, I quote it directly, and add a brief explanation. For the more advanced properties, I usually just prove them.

For example, I will write

Let $G$ be the centroid of $\Delta ABC$, and $D$ be the midpoint of $BC$. Then, $AG=2GD$ (This can be easily proven by the ratios between $[\Delta AGB]$, $[\Delta BGC]$ and $[\Delta CGA]$).

But for properties like

Let $H$ be the orthocenter of $\Delta ABC$. Then, the reflection of $H$ about any side of the triangle lies on the circumcircle.

I will prove these beforehand.

Edit 2:

As @CalvinLin has pointed out, you don't need to prove certain facts considered basic/"well-known" For example, at the IMO, you can quote that "squares are congruent to 0 or 1 mod 4" without having to prove it". For well known properties without a unique name (like reflection of orthocenter lies on circumcircle), then you should prove it.

IraeVid
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  • thank you, your answer was very helpful and clear :) – StCS Jun 10 '23 at 08:18
  • However, I am not very sure about the various properties of stuff in Geometry. I have added more details in my answer – IraeVid Jun 10 '23 at 08:35
  • Thanks. Before using the incenter-excenter lemma, would you prove it? And before using LTE in number theory? – StCS Jun 10 '23 at 09:20
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    Both LTE and the Incenter-Excenter Lemma (I call it Trillium Theorem) are formal theorems. So I'd use them directly. – IraeVid Jun 10 '23 at 09:26
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    There are certain facts considered basic/"well-known" that you don't have to prove. EG At the IMO, you can quote that "squares are 0 or 1 mod 4" without having to prove it. $\quad$ Apart from that, if there is a unique name, then you can quote. The exception is if you're asked to proof the theorem (EG Butterly theorem) or end up with a one-liner. The exception to that is if you're quoting Fermat's last theorem. $\quad$ For well known properties without a unique name (EG reflection of orthocenter lies on circumcircle), then you should prove it. – Calvin Lin Jun 22 '23 at 04:10
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    +1, I forgot about that. However, even if things have unique names like Euler Line, it still has to be proved (or maybe that's just in my country). – IraeVid Jun 22 '23 at 04:28