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Assume a random variable $X$. Assume, if this simplifies the problem, that $X$ can take only non negative integer values. Does there exist any relation between $E(X)$ and $E(a^X)$, where $a$ is an arbitrary value in the interval $[0,1]$ and by $a^X$ I mean the random variable that takes value $a^x$ with the same probability $p$ such that $X$ takes probability $x$?

Thanks!

Jeel Shah
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Sim
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2 Answers2

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$$E(X) = \lim_{a \to 1} \dfrac{d}{da} E(a^X)$$

Robert Israel
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There is a simple relation between $E[f(X)]$ and $E[X]$ for any convex function $f$, namely $f(E[X]) \leq E[f(X)]$. This holds for any random variable X and holds with strict inequality if X is not degenerate. Hence, since $a^x$ is convex, we have that $a^{E[X]} \leq E[a^X]$ or $E[X] \leq log_a(E[a^X])$.

exk
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